Answer:
The correct answer is 777.169.56.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Payment per year (PMT) = $3,000
Time (N) = 40 years
Rate of interest (R)= 8%
So, the future value of the following can be calculated by using the following formula:
Future value = PMT × 
Now, put the value of the following in the formula. then,
= 3,000 × 
= 3,000 × 259.0565
= 777,169.56
Hence, the value in the account after 40 years will be 777,169.56.
The accounts payable account is a/an option C: <u>liability; credit, </u>and it has a normal.
<h3>
What do you mean by Account payable?</h3>
A account payable is refers to as the monet owned by a company to its supplies and its represent in the firm's balance sheet.
The main role of account payable os to provide financial, administrative and clerical support to the firm. Their main role include complete the whole payment and control expenses.
Moreover, it is considered as the liability for each business because the company have to pay back its all due on particular period of time and it is credit in nature.
Hence, rest all options like A, B and D are incorrect because it does not considered under the account payable account.
Therefore, correct option is C.
Learn more about Account payable, refer to the link:
brainly.com/question/14438810
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The answer to this is DECA, I believe. :) I hope this helps
Answer: Independent insurance agent
Explanation:
An independent agent is sometimes called an insurance sales agent. An independent insurance agent is an insurance agent who sells insurance policies that are provided by different insurance companies.
An independent insurance agent gets commissions for the insurance policies that are sold. The higher the number of clients they serve, the higher the money they make. Independent insurance agents are not considered to be an employee of a particular insurance company
The US started collecting federal income tax in 1913