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kiruha [24]
3 years ago
14

A recipe that uses 1/2 pound of almonds makes 5/6 cup of almond butter.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Elodia [21]3 years ago
6 0

I believe it is the 2nd answer

Elodia [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

less than 2 cups of almond milk

Step-by-step explanation:

I took the quiz

You might be interested in
Quick Question
omeli [17]

Answer:

1 * 10^12

Step-by-step explanation:

Scientific notation is a representation of a large number in a short form. The answer, 1*10^12 (read as ten to the twelfth power) essentially says that the number when expanded is 1 with 12 zeros appended to it. If you did a number like 7 trillion you would have 7 * 10^12.

Same thing can be applied for 1,000,000 (one million).

1 * 10^6 because one million has 6 zeros appended to it.

5 0
3 years ago
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353

Step-by-step explanation:

GIven that:

A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.

Let consider β to be the average value for defecting

So;

β = 2

Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.

Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2

i.e

Y \sim P( \beta = 2)

the probability mass function can be represented as follows:

\mathtt{P(y) = \dfrac{e^{- \beta} \ \beta^ \ y}{y!}}

where;

y =  0,1,2,3 ...

Hence,  the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel

y = 0

\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{e^{- 2} \ 2^ \ 0}{0!}}

\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{0.1353  \times 1}{1}}

P(y =0) = 0.1353

4 0
3 years ago
What data does the x-axis show?<br> 25 points ***!!
Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

time in weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
What’s the measure of the angle theta?
11111nata11111 [884]

Answer:

∅ = 50°

Step-by-step explanation:

YOU NEED A CALCULATOR TO SOLVE THIS!

You need to use Law of Sines

\frac{a}{sinA} =\frac{b}{sinB} = \frac{c}{sinC}

Here you will be doing \frac{a}{sinA} =\frac{c}{sinC}

a and c are the lengths, while A and C are the angles

\frac{3.46}{sinA} = \frac{2.54}{sin43} you want to get the denominators out from underneath so multiply both sides by sinA and sin43

3.46sin43 = 2.54sinA

Now you want to get sinA alone so divide both sides by 2.54

\frac{3.46sin43}{2.54} = sinA now get A alone

sin^{-1} (\frac{3.46sin43}{2.54}) = A put that into the calculator

49.61741033 = A

7 0
3 years ago
The number of milligrams of a certain medicine a veterinarian gives to a dog varies directly with the weight of the dog. If the
Andre45 [30]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A direct variation equation is of the form

y = kx,

where, in words, it reads "y varies directly with x" or "y varies directly as x". In order to use this as a model, we have to have enough information to solve for k, the constant of variation. The constant of variation is kind of like the slope in a straight line. It rises or falls at a steady level; it is the rate of change.

We have that a vet gives a dose of three-fifths mg to a 30 pound dog. If the dose varies directly with the weight of the dog, then our equation is

d = kw and we need to find k in order to have the model for dosing the animals.

\frac{3}{5} =k(30)

Divide both sides by 1/30 to get k alone.

(\frac{1}{30})(\frac{3}{5})=k and

k=\frac{1}{50}

Our model then is

d=\frac{1}{50}w

This means that for every pound of weight, the dog will get one-fiftieth of a mg of medicine.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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