Answer:
A) Negative Correlation. B) C. C) B
Step-by-step explanation:
<h2>A:</h2>
As the line of best fit is travelling downwards, it is a negative correlation, if the line of best fit is travelling upwards, it is a positive correlation, if the points on the graph are all over the place, there is no correlation.
<h2>B:</h2>
As there are only three types of correlation, the strongest is always the positive.
<h2>C:</h2>
The answer is B because there is no correlation and that means that there shouldn't be a line of best fit.
First find the total payments
Total paid
200×30=6,000 (this is the future value)
Second use the formula of the future value of annuity ordinary to find the monthly payment.
The formula is
Fv=pmt [(1+r/k)^(n)-1)÷(r/k)]
We need to solve for pmt
PMT=Fv÷[(1+r/k)^(n)-1)÷(r/k)]
PMT monthly payment?
Fv future value 6000
R interest rate 0.09
K compounded monthly 12
N=kt=12×(30months/12months)=30
PMT=6000÷(((1+0.09÷12)^(30)
−1)÷(0.09÷12))
=179.09 (this is the monthly payment)
Now use the formula of the present value of annuity ordinary to find the amount of his loan.
The formula is
Pv=pmt [(1-(1+r/k)^(-n))÷(r/k)]
Pv present value or the amount of his loan?
PMT monthly payment 179.09
R interest rate 0.09
N 30
K compounded monthly 12
Pv=179.09×((1−(1+0.09÷12)^(
−30))÷(0.09÷12))
=4,795.15
The answer is 4795.15
Answer:
22 11
Step-by-step explanation:
its a pattern if you look at the trend on the equation
Answer:
I think its 57
Step-by-step explanation:
the difference of 6 divided by 2 is 3
i just divided 171 by 3 and got 57
Answer:
there's no picture, repost with a picture or more details
