Answer + Step-by-step explanation:
1) The probability of getting 2 white balls is equal to:

2) the probability of getting 2 white balls is equal to:

3) The probability of getting at least 72 white balls is:

![=\sum^{150}_{k=72} [C^{k}_{150}\times \left( \frac{8}{15} \right)^{k} \times \left( \frac{7}{15} \right)^{150-k}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%5Csum%5E%7B150%7D_%7Bk%3D72%7D%20%5BC%5E%7Bk%7D_%7B150%7D%5Ctimes%20%20%5Cleft%28%20%5Cfrac%7B8%7D%7B15%7D%20%5Cright%29%5E%7Bk%7D%20%20%5Ctimes%20%5Cleft%28%20%5Cfrac%7B7%7D%7B15%7D%20%5Cright%29%5E%7B150-k%7D%5D)
#5
57.8 can be rounded to 60 because 57.8 is closer to 60 than 50 and 81 is relatively close to 80. if we had to estimate the quotient, we would have
60 ÷ 80 = 0.75
#8
2.8 can be rounded to 3 because 2.8 is closer to 3 than it is to 2 and 6 can be left alone because it will make our division easier.
3 ÷ 6 = 0.5
#11
737.5 can be rounded to 700 and 9 can be rounded to 10.
700 ÷ 10 = 100
Answer:
3rd graph
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
There are 2 cups in 1 pint.
Sara gets 2 * 7 = 14 cups
She pays 20 dollars.
Tatiana buys 15 1/2 cups for 20 dollars. In effect, Tatiana got 1.5 cups free, so she got the better deal.