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lorasvet [3.4K]
3 years ago
13

A government announces it will impose an indirect tax on the price of petrol because it wants to discourage travel by car and en

courage the use of bus and rail services instead. This, it believes, will help to reduce traffic congestion and harmful exhaust emissions
Business
1 answer:
balu736 [363]3 years ago
3 0

The correct answer to this open question is the following.

Here we do not have a question. Just a statement.

What is your question? What do you want to know?

However, trying to help you we can comment on the following.

If the government announces it will impose an indirect tax on the price of petrol because it wants to discourage travel by car and encourage the use of bus and rail services instead, it had to make sure that the impact will have the expected benefits because that could not always be the case.  

Some other considerations need to be made for this to happen. For instance, if the government wants to dissuade people to use their cars, the government has to make sure that the public transportation system is in optimal conditions, it is safe to ride, and can guarantee the transportation times for people to be on time in their jobs.

Otherwise, people will still be driving their cars because they think that using cars is a more safe and better way to travel.

Public transportation also has to comply with strict pollution emissions controls.

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private markets fail to provide the optimal amount of some good such as public firework displays because
LiRa [457]

Answer: Because private companies will have difficulty getting anybody to pay for them.

Explanation:

Private markets fail to provide the optimal amount of some good such as public firework displays because private companies will have difficulty getting anybody to pay for them.

The main motive behind private markets are simply for making of profit but for public, the main motive is for the government to satisfy the needs to the people. Hence, with regards to the question, the answer will be that there'll be difficulties encountered in getting people to pay for the goods.

8 0
3 years ago
As part of his 401(k) retirement plan at work, Ken Lowery invests 6.0 percent of his salary each month in the Capital Investment
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

The amount of the fee is $1689.60

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of the fee is shown below:

= Dollar value × fund charges a 12b-1 fee

= $211,200 × 0.8%

= $211,200 × 0.008

= $1689.60

Since the question has asked the fee amount so we consider the fee charges percentage, not the capital investment Lifecycle fund. Thus, we ignore the Capital Investments Lifecycle Fund as it is not relevant.

Hence, the amount of the fee is $1689.60

8 0
3 years ago
Advantages and disadvantages of implementing plan where functional managers will be held responsible for cost overruns against t
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Explanation:

Implementing plans where functional managers will be held responsible for cost overruns against their original estimate possess both advantages and disadvantages :

The advantages include:

1) Efficient use of Resources : A functional manager could be explained as the head or a person who has managerial authority over a department within a business organization. As such the functional manager will be able to monitor more effectively and take control of his unit. Holding them responsible for cost overruns will ensure that they are more cautious when it comes to resource and cost management as they will not want to be sanctioned.

11) ACCOUNTABILITY: It increases the sense of responsibility of the functional managers as they are being held fully responsible for the decisions made within their unit. This places a higher burden of showing sincerity on the managers.

The disadvantage associated with the plan is the possibility of producing low quality products resulting from the economical and cautious approach embarked upon in other to prevent cost overrun, materials used may be lesser quality than expected.

5 0
3 years ago
Who wants points answer in this question points for 10 points ;)
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

OK Thanks for the free points

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Management of Mittel Rhein AG of Köln, Germany, would like to reduce the amount of time between when a customer places an order
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

1. Throughput Time = 9.2 days

2. Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency = 29%

3. 71% throughput time was spent in non value added activities.

4. Delivery Cycle Time = 25.8 days

5. New MCE = 57%

Explanation:

Given

Inspection time 0.7 days

Wait time 16.6 days

Process time 2.7 days

Move time 1.3 days

Queue time 4.5 days

1. The throughput time is calculated by adding all time except the wait time.

I.e.

Throughput time = Inspection time + Process time + Move time + Queue time

Throughput Time = 0.7 days + 2.7 days + 1.3 days + 4.5 days

Throughput Time = 9.2 days

2. Calculating the manufacturing cycle efficiency.

Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency is calculated by dividing value added time by throughput time.

Where the value added time = the process time = 2.7 days

And throughput time = 9.2 days (calculated in (a) above)

Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency = 2.7 days ÷ 9.2 days

Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency = 0.2934782609

Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency = 29.34782609%

Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency = 29%

3. Calculating the percentage of the throughput time was spent in non–value-added activities.

This is calculated by subtracting MCE calculated above from 100%

% throughput time = 100% - 29%

% throughput time = 71%

So, if 29% throughput time was spent in value added activities, 71% throughput time was spent in non value added activities.

4. Calculating the delivery cycle time.

This is calculated by adding the wait time to throughput time.

i.e.

Delivery Cycle Time = Wait Time + Throughput Time

Where Wait Time = 16.6 days and Throughput Time = 9.2 days

Delivery Cycle Time = 16.6 days + 9.2 days

Delivery Cycle Time = 25.8 days

5. Calculating new MCE.

Here, we'll used the same formula used in (2) above

i.e

Manufacturing Cycle Efficiency is calculated by dividing value added time by throughput time.

Where the value added time = the process time = 2.7 days

But throughput time will be calculated as

Throughput time = Inspection time + Process time + Move time (because of the elimination of all queue time)

Throughput Time = 0.7 days + 2.7 days + 1.3 days

Throughput Time = 4.7 days

So, New MCE = 2.7 days ÷ 4.7 days

New MCE = 0.5744680851

New MCE = 57.44680861%

New MCE = 57%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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