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forsale [732]
3 years ago
10

Complete the steps to find the value of x

Mathematics
1 answer:
vampirchik [111]3 years ago
3 0
72, 96, 84, 12

72 + (7x+24) = 180
7x + 96 = 180
7x = 84
x = 12
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Jake forgot to replace the cap on a bottle of cologne. The cologne began to evaporate at the rate of 18% per day. If the origina
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

x is 738

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
2. (01.02 MC)<br> Find the value of the expression 4a4 – 2b2 + 40 when a = 2 and b = 7. (5 points)
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

4x2x4 - 2×7×2 + 40

64 - 28 + 40=76

6 0
3 years ago
A recipe says to use 3cups of flour to make 48 cookies. What is a constant of proportionality that related the number of cookies
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

y=16 x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

For this one, we need to find the unit rate, which means how many cookies we can make using 1 cup of flour. To do that, we need to divide both the flour and the cookies by 3 to get 3/3=1 and 48/3=16. So the total amount of cookies made with one cup of flour is 16. So the constant proportionality is 16,1.

6 0
3 years ago
Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}

And replacing we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99

And now we can solve for \lambda

0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)

ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)

\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}

Where :

f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)

f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

4 0
3 years ago
If f(x) = 2x-12, evaluate -2f(3) <br><br> PLEASE HELP!!!!!!
mel-nik [20]
I think that’s it f(x)=2x−12
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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