Answer:
= 20n + 12
Step-by-step explanation:
There is a common difference d between consecutive terms, that is
d = 52 - 32 = 72 - 52 = 92 - 72 = 20
This indicates the sequence is arithmetic with explicit formula
= a₁ + (n - 1)d
where a₁ is the first term and d the common difference
Here a₁ = 32 and d = 20, thus
= 32 + 20(n - 1) = 32 + 20n - 20 = 20n + 12
Answer:
150 people
Step-by-step explanation:
20/50 = 40%
So 40% are wearing hats and 60% aren't
0.6=60%
250x0.6= 150
Answer:
(D) "...because he will not have to pay any interest on his purchases during the introductory APR period."
Step-by-step explanation:
There may be many reasons for John to choose one over the other depending on his future and planned usage patterns. However, answer the (D) is the only correct one in terms of stating a reason that is actually supported by the information in the question. Specifically, there is 0% APR for card B.
What's wrong with the other choices:
Choice A: incorrect statement re APR after intro period (is not 1%); B: incorrect statement re cash advance (is not 0%); C: statement is not supported by anything in the information given (it is an assumption, and is unlikely).
Answer:
a.y=6
b.-1/8
c.1/2
d.2800
e.-8
f.7.71
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
5
Step-by-step explanation:
(-3, 8) and (0, 23)
m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
m=(23 - 8)/(0+3)
m=(15)/3
m = 5
