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serg [7]
2 years ago
5

Dermody Snow Removal's cost formula for its vehicle operating cost is $3,030 per month plus $333 per snow-day. For the month of

December, the company planned for activity of 15 snow-days, but the actual level of activity was 17 snow-days. The actual vehicle operating cost for the month was $8,300. The spending variance for vehicle operating cost in December would be closest to:
Business
1 answer:
hodyreva [135]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

391 F

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what The spending variance for vehicle operating cost in December would be closest to

Using this formula

Spending variance for vehicle operating cost = Flexible budget-Actual

Let plug in the formula

Spending variance for vehicle operating cost= (333*17+3,030)-8300

Spending variance for vehicle operating cost=(5,661+3,030)-8,300

Spending variance for vehicle operating cost=8,691-8,300

Spending variance for vehicle operating cost=391 F

Therefore The spending variance for vehicle operating cost in December would be closest to

391 F

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zysi [14]

Any type of government-funded program, such as health care, social assistance, unemployment benefits, payments to banks, and national military, can have an impact on government spending.

What is government?

The term "Government" is legal authority or system which is controlled by office, public sector, country and state.

The government's main objectives are to increase the macroeconomic supply side, which includes spending on things like education, health care, and training to increase labor productivity as well as providing subsidies to help people financially.

Government spending has a negative impact on the economy because it drives inflation by raising living expenses through subsidies. Demand is artificially raised by government subsidies.

As a result, factors including health, social services, unemployment benefits, etc. may have an impact on government spending.

Learn more about on government, here:

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6 0
1 year ago
Assume the spot rate of the British pound is $1.73. The expected spot rate 1 year from now is assumed to be $1.66. What percenta
Alexandra [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is 4.05%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Spot rate = $1.73

Expected spot rate after 1 year = $1.66

So, we can calculate the depreciation percentage by using the following formula:

Expected Depreciation = (Expected spot rate after 1 year - Spot rate) / Spot rate

So, by putting the value

= ($1.66 – $1.73) / $1.73

= - $0.07 / $1.73

= - 4.05%

Hence, the depreciation percentage is 4.05%.

8 0
3 years ago
In order to accurately assess the capital structure of a firm, it is necessary to convert its balance sheet figures from histori
pychu [463]

Answer:

$19,708,745

Explanation:

We first have to calculate the present value of the bonds:

Nper = 20 (10 years x 2 payments per year)

R = 11% / 2 = 5.5%

Payment = 83 / 2 = 41.50

Future value = 1,000

PV = ?

To calculate the present value we can use an excel spreadsheet and the present value function =PV(5.5%,20,41.5,1000) = $838.67

Now we calculate how many bonds were issued = $23,500,000 / $1,000 = 23,500 bonds.

To determine the market value of the debt outstanding we multiply the present value of the bonds times the total number of bonds outstanding

= $838.67 x 23,500 = $19,708,745

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose the benefit of owning a painting, in terms of your personal enjoyment, is worth 5% of the value of the painting. If the
Julli [10]

Answer:

7%

Explanation:

It would grow by 7% each year which is the rate of return on stocks

4 0
3 years ago
When is a goodwill impairment loss recognized? a. Annually on a systematic and rational basis. b. Never When both the fair value
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": When both the fair value of a reporting unit and its associated implied goodwill fall below their respective carrying values.

Explanation:

Impairment Loss is the decrease in an asset's net carrying value that exceeds the future undisclosed cash flow it should generate. The net carrying value is an asset's acquisition cost minus depreciation. Impairment occurs when a company sells or abandons an asset that is no longer beneficial.

Thus, <em>a goodwill impairment loss is recognized when the goodwill's net carrying value is below its fair value and the expected cash flow it was to generate.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
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