Answer:
The correct answer is A. A main reason cited by American businesses for outsourcing jobs to other countries is the high cost of labor in the United States.
Explanation:
Outsourcing means separating from the organizational structure of the enterprise some functions performed by them independently and transferring them to other entities for execution. This decentralization process is very evident in American companies that produce manufactured goods, which place the primary production processes in other countries such as China, Mexico or Vietnam, among others, to produce their products at a lower cost, given the lower costs. labor (lower wages, lower taxes, less expensive regulations, etc.).
Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The Nelson Company's radio division currently is purchasing transistors from the Charlotte Co. for $3.50 each. The total number of transistors needed is 8,000 per month. Nelson Company's electronics division can produce the transistors for a cost of $4.00 each and they have plenty of capacity to manufacture the units. The $4 is made up of $3.25 in variable costs, and $0.75 in allocated fixed costs.
Because there is unused capacity, we will not have into account the fixed costs.
Unitary cost= $3.25
It is more convenient to produce in house. The indifference price is $3.50.
<u>Full question:</u>
On June 15, Harper purchased equipment for $100,000 from Imperial Corp. for use in its manufacturing process. Harper paid for the equipment with funds borrowed from Eastern Bank. Harper gave Eastern a security agreement and financing statement covering Harper’s existing and after-acquired equipment. On June 21, Harper was petitioned involuntarily into bankruptcy under Chapter 7 of the Federal Bankruptcy Code. A bankruptcy trustee was appointed. On June 23, Eastern filed the financing statement. Which of the parties will have a superior security interest in the equipment?
A. The trustee in bankruptcy, because the filing of the financing statement after the commencement of the bankruptcy case would be deemed a preferential transfer.
B. The trustee in bankruptcy, because the trustee became a lien creditor before Eastern perfected its security interest.
C. Eastern, because it had a perfected purchase money security interest without having to file a financing statement.
D. Eastern, because it perfected its security interest within the permissible time limits.
<u>Answer:</u>
Eastern parties will have a superior security interest in the equipment because it perfected its security interest within the permissible time limits.
<u>Explanation:</u>
Eastern has a higher security interest because Eastern amended its security interest inside the allowable time deadlines. A perfected security interest in any security interest in an asset that cannot be demanded by any other party.
Below the Uniform Commercial Code (U.C.C.), to perfect a security interest, a lender has 10 days from the date of the sale of material to perfect the security interest by filing a financing statement. Possessing registered in the 10-day limit, Eastern has a strong perfected security interest in the material and after-acquired things even though the bankruptcy was recorded two days ahead.
Answer:
(1) establish the fund on January 1,
- Dr Petty cash fund 200
- Cr Cash 200
(2) reimburse it on January 8
- Dr Postage expenses 39
- Dr Transportation expenses 12
- Dr Delivery expenses 14
- Dr Miscellaneous expenses 28
- Cr Cash 93
(3) both reimburse the fund and increase it to $350 on January 8, assuming no entry in part 2.
- Dr Petty cash fund 150
- Dr Postage expenses 39
- Dr Transportation expenses 12
- Dr Delivery expenses 14
- Dr Miscellaneous expenses 28
- Cr Cash 243
The only difference between part 2 and 3 is that the Petty cash fund is increased by $150, and cash decreases by $243 instead of $93.
Answer:
$3,168
Explanation:
We will receive $4000 in future (after 4 years time) which means all we want to know is the amount that we Derek must deposit today.
This present value of the $4000 payment received after 4 years from today can be calculated using the following formula:
Present value = Future Value / (1 + r)^n
Here
Future Value is $4000
r is 6%
n is 4 years
So by putting values, we have:
Present value = $4000 / (1 + 6%)^4 Years
Present value = $3,168
