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lord [1]
3 years ago
13

In an economy open to international trade ________.

Business
1 answer:
Serjik [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: D) saving equals investment as long as NX = 0

Explanation:

The last option was incomplete as it should have said ...NX = 0.

The Income/GDP of a country that is open to international trade is calculated as follows:

Income = Consumption + Investment + Government spending + Net exports

Y = C + I + G + NX

If NX = 0 then the formula becomes:

Y = C + I + G

Investment in this scenario is therefore:

I = Y - C - G

This is the same as savings as savings is calculated by subtracting consumption and government spending from the total income. This is because government spending is derived from taxes so the cash that people get to save is their income less than their taxes and consumption expenses.

S = Y - C - G = Y

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The Warren Watch Company sells watches for $21, fixed costs are $180,000, and variable costs are $15 per watch.
enyata [817]

Answer:

  • 5,000 watches : $150,000  loss
  • 20,000 watches:  $60,000  (Loss)
  • Break-even point = 30,000  units
  • if the selling price rises to 32  = break even points descends to 10,588 units
  • If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26  , the break even point goes back to 30,000units.

Explanation:

Hi, to answer this question we have to apply the next formula:

Profit = Revenue -cost

Where the revenue is equal to the units sold (x) multiplied by the selling price,

R = 21 x  

And cost is equal to the sum of the fixed and variable costs.

C = 15x + 1800

So:

P = 21x-(15x +180,000)

P = x ( 21-15)- 180,000

  • For 5,000 watches:

P = 5000(21-15)-180,000

P = 5000(6) -180,000

P= 30,000-180,000

P=-$150,000  (loss , since is negative )

  • For 20,000 watches:

P = 20,000(6) -180,000

P = 120,000-180,000

P=-$60,000  (Loss)

  • To find the break even point:

R = C

21x = 15x + 180,000

21x-15x =180,000

6 x = 180,000

x = 180,000/6

x =30,000  units

  • if the selling price rises to 32

32x = 15x + 180,000

32x-15x = 180,000

17x =180,000

x = 180,000/17

x = 10,588 units

It descends,

  • If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26  

32x = 26x+180,000

32x-26x = 180,000

6x = 180,000

x = 180,000/6

x =30,000

The break-even point comes back to 30,000 units.

6 0
4 years ago
On September 3, 2021, the Robers Company exchanged equipment with Phifer Corporation. The facts of the exchange are as follows:
GREYUIT [131]

Based on the information given the appropriate journal entries to record the exchange for both Robers and Phifer are:

Robers entries

Debit Equipment (new) $77,000  

Debit Accumulated Depreciation $111 000  

Debit Cash $19,000  

Credit Equipment  $190,000

Credit Gain on Sale $17,000

($77,000+$111,000+$19,000-$190,000)

Phifer's entries

Debit Equipment(new) $96,000  

Debit Accumulated depreciation $119,000  

Debit Loss on Sale $14,000

($210,000+$19,000-$96,000-$119,000)

Credit Equipment  $210,000

Credit Cash  $19,000

Learn more about journal entries here:brainly.com/question/24696035

4 0
3 years ago
the italian airline alitalia will pay $10 million to United Airlines one year from today. The spot rate is $1.35/E, while the 1-
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

alitalia should do the forward hedge to hedge its transaction exposure

Explanation:

Alitalia can construct the money market hedge as follows

1. borrow Euro whose present value is equal to the amount to be paid.

2. convert it to foreign currency at the current spot rate.

3. place it in a deposit

4. make the payment when the deposit reaches maturity

PV of payment = 10000000/1.05

                         = 9523809.525

converting in to Euro at the spot rate we get 6802721.09 Euros

so Alitalia has to borrow the above amount and convert it and invest it at 5%.

now the payable amount from the loan is  6802721.09(1+0.03) = 7006802.72 Euros

Hence Alitalia has effective managed to locl in a forward rate of 1.427$/euros (10000000/7006802.72)$/euros

Therefore, alitalia should do the forward hedge to hedge its transaction exposure

6 0
4 years ago
nobel prize winner milton friedman said that a bad central banker is like a ""fool in the shower."" how does this apply to centr
cluponka [151]

There are monetary policy lags

<h3>What is monetary policy lags ?</h3>

The presence of temporal delays is one of the drawbacks of countercyclical monetary policy. The monetary authority must have time to recognise the need for action, take that action, and observe how that action affects economic activity. The time relationship between the resultant monetary series and the subsequent series of impacts of monetary operations is how Friedman defines "lag." He claims that economic circumstances are only affected by monetary measures after a "long and varied lag." Friedman makes a distinction between three fundamental lags: the administrative lag, the operation lag, and the recognition lag.

To learn more about monetary policy check the given linkhttps://brainly.in/question/6090122

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
Difference between relative and absolute scarcity
Arisa [49]

Answer: Relative scarcity could be described as that where the resources are limited in supply for a short while, due to manufacturing or supply challenges.

Absolute scarcity could he described as where supply is naturally limited. No possibility of the supply increasing.

Explanation:

Relative scarcity could be described as that where the resources are limited in supply for a short while, due to manufacturing or supply challenges.

Absolute scarcity could he described as where supply is naturally limited. No possibility of the supply increasing.

In relative scarcity, there is a probability of the supply to be made available later while in absolute, there is no possibility of it happening.

7 0
3 years ago
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