Answer is C
Because 2 is your Y intercept and -1/2 means your going to move down 1 then move 2 to the right
Answer:
1/26
Step-by-step explanation:
1 out of 13 would be equal to the amount of cards that would be a jack.
But you also have to take into regards the coin flip 50%chance so you would just could what the number is divided by to get the right answer. Since out come could be tails or head instead of just being one for sure for example.
<span>–3cd – d(2c – 4) – 4d
= </span><span>–3cd – 2cd + 4d – 4d
= -5cd
answer
</span><span>A:–5cd </span>
5:3 x 6:2 can also be written as a fraction
5/3 x 6/2
Multiply across
30/6
Simplify
5/1
Rewrite
5:1 is your answer, or if your teacher does not want it simplified, 30:6
Hope I helped! :)
1,000,000 is the answer (it would be rounded up since its a 6 in the ten thousands place)
