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3 years ago

Which is the mode for the data set? −1, 0, 3, 4, −3, −1 0.3 −1 2 −0.5

Mathematics

1 answer:

Zepler [3.9K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Mode is the number that appears most often

−1, 0, 3, 4, −3, −1

-1 appears twice which is more than any other number

-1 is the mode

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Pepsi [2]

Using the t-distribution, as we have the standard deviation for the sample, it is found that the 95% confidence interval estimate for the mean number of calories for servings of breakfast cereals is (195.3, 215.7).

<h3>What is a t-distribution confidence interval?</h3>

The confidence interval is:

$\overline{x} \pm t\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}}$

In which:

$\overline{x}$ is the sample mean.
t is the critical value.
n is the sample size.
s is the standard deviation for the sample.

From the sample and the significance level of 0.05, we have that the parameters are given by:

$\overline{x} = 205.5, s = 14.2, n = 10, t = 2.2622$

Hence:

$\overline{x} - t\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}} = 205.5 - 2.2622\frac{14.2}{\sqrt{10}} = 195.3$

$\overline{x} + t\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}} = 205.5 + 2.2622\frac{14.2}{\sqrt{10}} = 215.7$

The 95% confidence interval estimate for the mean number of calories for servings of breakfast cereals is (195.3, 215.7).

More can be learned about the t-distribution at brainly.com/question/16162795

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2 years ago

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Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

you get 90 pills from the pharmacy every 28 days . you take 3 per day., but you lost 8 pills. how many pills per day are you lef

Ratling [72]

If you have 90 pills from the pharmacy every 28 days, and you take 3 per day, but lost 8. You will end up with 82 when you lost the 8 pills. Does it tell you how many days you took the pills for or is it just asking what you have left after losing 8 of them?

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3 years ago

Assume that there is a 8% rate of disk drive failure in a year. a. If all your computer data is stored on a hard disk drive wit

romanna [79]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$