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rusak2 [61]
3 years ago
13

A can do a piece of work in 3 days and B in 6 days. In how many days will they do it together? ​

Mathematics
2 answers:
mr Goodwill [35]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 2 days

Step-by-step explanation:

We will add there work together

= 1/3 + 1/6

= 2/6 + 1/6 (LCM 6)

= 3/6

= 1/2

Therefore 1/2 = 2 days

Therefore it will take them 2 days

please click thanks and mark brainliest if you like :)

Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

What is a can???????plsssssss

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A certain kite has exactly one acute angle, and it measures 16 degrees. What is the maximum whole-number measure of the angle op
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

In order to do so, we need to use basic algebra. The angles in a kite add up to 360 degrees. so we form the following equation.

x + y + y + 16 = 360

x + y + y = 344 <----(360 -16)

Each letter or variable represents an angle measure. the measures of the three angles left. The 16 degrees is on the bottom of the kite and the angle opposite is the top angle. the two side angles will be the same measure that's why they are both y.

x + 2y = 344

The two side angles will be 90 or greater because there is only 1 acute angle. 90 is the smallest number that can be chosen. so we do the following.

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 2(90) = 344

x + 180 = 344

x = 344-180

x = 164

THE MAXIMUM WHOLE NUMBER MEASURE OF THE ANGLE OPPOSITE OF THE 16 DEGREE ACUTE ANGLE IS 164 DEGREES*

4 0
3 years ago
13. Use the distributive property
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Answer:

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3 years ago
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The plane continued to descend, but leveled off to an angle of descent of 3° degrees for approximately 2 miles. How many feet di
Alex787 [66]
ANSWER: Plane dropped 6097 feet in altitude.
BECAUSE: An airplane is at point A from where it continued to descend by 30° for an approximate distance of 2 miles
∠ACB = Angle of descent = 30°
Distance BC = 2 miles
Let the plane dropped the altitude = h miles
Now tan 30° =


h = 1.155 miles
h ≈ 1.16 miles
Since 1 mile = 5280 feet
1.15 miles = 5280×1.16 feet
= 6097 feet
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3 years ago
Do the equations y = -6x +4 and y = 4x + 6 have one solution, no solution, or infinitely many solutions
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

One solution

Step-by-step explanation:

We know there is only one solution because the lines do not have the same slope, nor are they the exact same line.

So we know they must have just one solution.

Best of luck

6 0
2 years ago
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Before dividing, decompose 420 to make it easier to divide by 4.
den301095 [7]

Answer:

4/420=105

Step-by-step explanation:

decompose 42 and divide by 4 is 10 and is 20 divided by 4 is 5

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