Answer:
$0 stock basis; $10,000 debt basis
$1,000 (original stock basis) + $4,000 ordinary income − $7,000 distribution = $0 stock basis and a $2,000 distribution in excess of stock basis generating $2,000 of capital gain. Debt basis is not reduced by distributions.
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sales=$775000
Variable expenses= 523000
Contribution margin= 252000
Fixed expenses= 132000
Net income= $120000
Hard Rubber:
Sales=$65000
Variable expenses=58000
Contribution margin= 7000
Fixed expenses= 22000
Net income= -15000
New net income= 120,000 + 15,000 - 22,000= 113,000
Answer: option C
Explanation: THIS CAN BE REPRESENTED AS FOLLOWS :-
If we eliminate the product there would be no sales, no variable expenses and therefore, no contribution.
sales = nil
-variable expenses= <u>nil</u>
contribution = nil
- fixed expenses = <u>56,000</u>
NET LOSS = <u> (56000)</u>
.
NOTE :-
Fixed expense = (140,000)*(40%)= 56,000
.
.
Thus increase in loss would be 56000- 50,000=6000
Answer:
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Explanation:
di kopo yarn alam
Answer: Negative Sales Mix Variance
Explanation:
With regards to the above question, the company has a negative sales mix variance. First and foremost, we should know that the sales mix variance simply has to do with the difference between the actual sales mix and the budgeted sales mix of a company or organization.
From the question, there'll be negative sales mix variance and this will bring about a reduction in the revenue of the company as the budgeted sales will be lesser than actual sales. Therefore, Profit also reduces.
