PLEASE HELP!!!! Complete the proof for the following conjecture. WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!
1 answer:
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<h2>Hello!</h2>
The answer is:
C) They both have the same y-intercept.
<h2>Why?</h2>In order to find the correct option, we need to find the equation of the function g(x), and then, compare its y-intercept with the y-intercept of the f(x) function.
So,
- Finding the equation of the g(x):
Calculating the slope of the function, using the first two points (-1,8) and (1,0), we have:
Now, calculating the value of "b" using the first point (-1,8) and the slope of the function, we have:
So, the equation of g(x) is:
- Comparing the y-intercepts of f(x) and g(x):
Finding the y-intercept of f(x), by making "x" equal to 0, we have:
We have that the function f(x) has its y-intercept at "y" equal to 4.
Finding the y-intercept of g(x), by making "x" equal to 0, we have:
We have that the function g(x) has its y-intercept at "y" equal to 4.
Hence, we have that both functions have their y-intercepts at the same point, so, the correct option is:
C) They both have the same y-intercept.
Have a nice day!