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d1i1m1o1n [39]
3 years ago
14

9-3 divided by 1/3+1

Mathematics
2 answers:
atroni [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

i believe the answer is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

garri49 [273]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

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Helppp Plsss Asap!! Thanks!! ​
LenKa [72]

the answer is 12 because if you look at the position of the y axis when x equals 2 then look at the y value when x equals 4 you will get the 2 numbers 4 and 16 now subtract 16 by 4 and you get 12.

8 0
3 years ago
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Bridget bought a package of cookies for $1.50 and 5 water. She spent a total of $10. How much did each water cost?
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

I think it would be, $8.50 OR $9.50

Step-by-step explanation:

You just have to take $1.50 from $10.00 :)

6 0
3 years ago
Newton's Method: Calculus I need assistance and a clear explanation so I can understand. Please be clear
marishachu [46]
Newtons method is a way to approximate the zero of a function. 
It is a recursive method such that the output becomes the new input, the goal is to approach the zero by having the inputs change by a smaller amount each iteration until that change is nearly 0.

First, let me explain where the method comes from.
The formula is really just a manipulation of the slope formula using 2 points; the point tangent to the curve, and the point where the tangent line crosses the x-axis.
If (x,y) is point on curve, then (x*,0) is point on tangent line at x-axis.
m = \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{y - 0}{x - x^*}

Rearranging for x*:
x^* = x - \frac{y}{dy/dx}

This is the formula for newtons method. y = f(x), dy/dx = f'(x)
Now what happens is (x*,y*) becomes new point on curve with new tangent line with different slope.
This new line will cross x-axis at different point x** and so on until eventually f(x) gets really really close to 0.

Now for the example:
you need to take derivative f'(x) using product rule:
f(x) = x tan(x) - 1 \\  \\ f'(x) = tan(x) + x sec^2 (x)

Then its just a matter of plugging in values for x, and repeating until we get close to a zero.

First plug in x = 1
x_1 = 1 - \frac{(1)(tan 1) - 1}{tan 1 + (1)sec^2 (1)} = 0.888136 \\  \\ x_2 = .888136 - \frac{f(.888136)}{f'(.888136)} = 0.861465 \\  \\ x_3 = .861465 - \frac{f(.861465)}{f'(.861465)} = 0.860335 \\  \\ x_4 = .860335 - \frac{f(.860335)}{f'(.860335)} = 0.860334 \\  \\ x_5 = .860334 - \frac{f(.860334)}{f'(.860334)} = 0.860334

Now we can stop because x5 = x4 to 6 decimals, this means f(x) is very close to 0 and will serve as a good approximation for a solution.

Final Answer:
x = 0.860334
8 0
3 years ago
Trigonometry
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

3√15/4

Step-by-step explanation:

sin x = 2/8

  • from the trigonometric rule sin²x+cos²x = 1
  • cos²x = 1-sin²x

sinx = 2/8

sin²x = (2/8)² = 2²/8² = 4/64

1- sin²x = 1-4/64 = 64 -4/64 = 60/64 = 15/16

  • cos²x = 15/16

cos x = √(15/16) = √15 /4

  • cos 3x

3 x cos x = 3 x √15/4 = 3√15/4

6 0
3 years ago
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Which of these is a statistical question?
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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