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Westkost [7]
3 years ago
15

Please answer ASAP and ill give 20 points and brainlest

Mathematics
2 answers:
romanna [79]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

l = 12 is the answer

MrMuchimi3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B, L=12

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple two-step. first you ignore addition sign, (there to trick ya) so L-3=9

then you need L by itself so add three to both sides and you'll be done.

L=12

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A survey report states that 70% of adult women visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years. If 20
irakobra [83]

Answer:

a) 0.3921 = 39.21% probability that fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

b) 0.107 = 10.7% probability that at least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each women, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years, or they do not. The probability of a woman visiting their doctor at least once in this period is independent of any other women. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

70% of adult women visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years.

This means that p = 0.7

20 adult women

This means that n = 20

(a) Fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

This is:

P(X < 14) = 1 - P(X \geq 14)

In which

P(X \geq 14) = P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20)

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 14) = C_{20,14}.(0.7)^{14}.(0.3)^{6} = 0.1916

P(X = 15) = C_{20,15}.(0.7)^{15}.(0.3)^{5} = 0.1789

P(X = 16) = C_{20,16}.(0.7)^{16}.(0.3)^{4} = 0.1304

P(X = 17) = C_{20,14}.(0.7)^{17}.(0.3)^{3} = 0.0716

P(X = 18) = C_{20,18}.(0.7)^{18}.(0.3)^{2} = 0.0278

P(X = 19) = C_{20,19}.(0.7)^{19}.(0.3)^{1} = 0.0068

P(X = 20) = C_{20,20}.(0.7)^{20}.(0.3)^{0} = 0.0008

So

P(X \geq 14) = P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) = 0.1916 + 0.1789 + 0.1304 + 0.0716 + 0.0278 + 0.0068 + 0.0008 = 0.6079

P(X < 14) = 1 - P(X \geq 14) = 1 - 0.6079 = 0.3921

0.3921 = 39.21% probability that fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

(b) At least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years

P(X \geq 17) = P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20)

From the values found in item (a).

P(X \geq 17) = P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) = 0.0716 + 0.0278 + 0.0068 + 0.0008 = 0.107

0.107 = 10.7% probability that at least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

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3x+2y=14x=4y-2

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There is a manhole cover with a radius of 1 foot. What is the manhole cover's diameter?
zhuklara [117]

Step-by-step explanation:

This seems like you just want to figure out the circumference of the manhole cover. The formula for the circumference of a circle is pi (3.14) multiplied by the diameter (d) of the circle so, circumference=πd. (π is the symbol for pi and approx. equals 3.14)

Circumference = πd

= 3.14(d)

= 3.14(3)

= 9.42 ft.

The length of the brass grip-strip will be 9.42 ft.

If the problem was stated in terms of the radius of the manhole cover then the formula would be circumference = 2πr which is the radius multiplied by 2 then multiplied by pi.

The radius of a circle is the distance from the center to the edge and the diameter is the distance from one edge of the circle to the other passing through the center of the circle.

Well, if the grip strip were of no width and could be straightened out to a line (which a piece of rubber cut in a circle couldn't be), then the length of the grip would correspond to the circumference of the manhole cover.

Circumference = 2*PI*radius = PI*diameter so your answer is 3*PI feet long.

6 0
2 years ago
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