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Cloud [144]
2 years ago
14

XYZ Company bought real estate properties in Boston 50 years ago for $30,000. In 2020, a real estate appraiser inspects the prop

erties and concludes that their expected market value is $2 million. The company has been using historical accounting principles for the last 50 years. A newly appointed financial manager recommends the use of fair value accounting for the value of the properties. Discuss the difference between the two approaches. Do you agree with the financial manager? Why or why not?​
Business
1 answer:
madreJ [45]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

XYZ Company bought real estate properties in Boston 50 years ago for $30,000. In 2020, a real estate appraiser inspects the properties and concludes that their expected market value is $2 million. The company has been using historical accounting principles for the last 50 years.

Explanation:

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15 $ x 140 hours a month
-Dominant- [34]
2,100$ per month

140 x 15 = 2100
Then work it into the problem
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the following information to calculate the dollar cost of using a money market hedge to hedge 200,000 British pounds of paya
levacccp [35]

Answer:

The dollar cost of using a money market hedge to hedge 200,000 British pounds of payable due in 180 days is <u>$400,152.38</u>.

Explanation:

A money market hedge refers to a method that employed to to preserve the value of a foreign currency transaction in the domestic currency of a company in order to reduce the exchange rate or currency risk that is associated with business transactions with a foreign company.

For this question, the dollar cost of using a money market hedge can be calculated as follows:

Amount needed to invest in British pounds = Amount needed to hedge / (1 + British interest rate) = £200,000 / (1 + 0.05) = £190,476.19

Since this is in British pounds, we have to convert to the US dollars to obtain the amount of the US dollars that is needed to exchange as follows:

Amount needed to invest in the US dollars = Amount needed to invest in British pounds * Spot rate of the pound = £190,476.19 * $2.02 = $384,761.90

We can now calculate the amount needed to repay loan after 180-day as follow:

Amount needed to repay loan after 180-day = Amount needed to invest in the US dollars * (1 + U.S. interest rate) = $384,761.90 * (1 + 0.04) = $400,152.38

Therefore, the dollar cost of using a money market hedge to hedge 200,000 British pounds of payable due in 180 days is <u>$400,152.38</u>.

5 0
3 years ago
Assume that you have just purchased some shares in an investment company reporting $500 million in assets, $50 million in liabil
kiruha [24]

Answer:

B. $9

Explanation:

Assets value = $500 million

Liability value = $50 million

Use following formula to calculate NAV

Net Assets value = Assets value - Liability value

Net Assets value = $500 million - 50 million

Net Assets value = $450 million

Net Assets value = $450 million / 50 million

Net Assets value = $9 per share

So, the correct option is B. $9.

6 0
3 years ago
The economy begins in equilibrium at point E, representing the real interest rate r1 at which saving S1 equals desired investmen
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

A lower equilibrium point due to decreased investment, decreased real interest rate and decreased level of savings

Explanation:

The economic graph that is referred to in the question in referred to as the IS-LM curve which depicts the intersection of the IS (Investment-savings curve) with the LM (liquidity preference-money supply) curve. This intersection determines thr equilibrium between real interest rates and the output/consumption at that level of interest rate. The IS curve is downward sloping while the LM curve is upward sloping.

The tax law change makes the investment less attractive which will cause the IS curve to pull inwards (i.e a shift to the left). This shift to the left essentially reduces the level of investment thereby lowering the demand for money for investment. This reduction in demand causes the real interest to decrease. At this decreased interest level, there is a decrease in the the level of savings (because of the lower return that is available on money saved). Therefore the impact will result in a new lower equilibrium at which the real interest rate and the levels of saving and investment will be lower than the original equilibrium level.

8 0
3 years ago
What role does the government play in the economy's circular flow?
mamaluj [8]
Depends are we talking capitalism, or socialism.

In capitalism there is no government intervention in the Economy, no laws, nothing.

In socialism, the government controls all of the economy, Tarriffs, Hours, etc.

So the government is supposed to play the middleman to help the people, but also the businesses, as such the united states had introduced less work hours, to help increase the productivity of the workers, which did indeed work.
4 0
2 years ago
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