To find the percentage,here's what we can do:
The percentage would then be:
=63/420×100%
=3/20×100%
=0.15×100%
=15%
Therefore the answer is 15%.
Hope it helps!
Answer:
68.338
Step-by-step explanation:
to know how much is less than we have to substract
74.14-5.802=68.338
Answer:
a. =
b.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) When <em>n </em>is even, then it is divisible by 2. Because of this, you can write:
b) When <em>n </em>is odd, then <em>n - 1 </em> is even. This would make it divisible by 2, and there would be a remainder of 1, so we can write:
- ×
- ×
Answer:
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
The true proportion of defects is 0.15
This means that
Sample of 6:
This means that
What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?
In which
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.