Answer:
True
Explanation:
Yes, as there is an increase in dividend with the same expected return, share price increases using dividend growth model.
As for example current dividend = $5
And expected return = 10%
Price of share = 5/10% = $50
In case dividend is increased to $10 then share market price = $10/10% = $100
Now, with an increase in dividend rate, there is an increase in market price accordingly company can raise dividend in order to raise the share price accordingly.
Further, this might not be possible when dividend is fixed for the period as dividend is fixed with no further growth rate the price will also be fixed. So every time when the price is to be increased, the dividend has to be increased.
Therefore, above statement is true.
Answer:
D. Provide the customer a lengthy payment period to increase the chance of paying.
Explanation:
This is explained to be one of the working ethics found in some working and recruiting bodies or companies.
This trade payables’ payment period ratio here is said to represents the time lag between a credit purchase and making payment to the supplier. As trade payables relate to credit purchases so credit purchases figure should be used in calculating this ratio.
However as the amount of credit purchase is usually not separately available in the income statement so in that case total purchases could be used.
Like other ratios, this ratio is observed over a period of time and compared with the other businesses in the same industry.
The answer is compound interest my friend.
Answer:
All of these is true.
Explanation:
In the long run, the real GDP moves to potential level. It is because in the long run when the price level increases, the price of factor inputs increases as well.
The economy can produce reach natural rate of employment and potential output at any price level. Increase in price does not cause the output to increase in the long run.
Improvement in the state of technology or increase in available resources causes the output level to increase.
Cyclical unemployment will not exist in the long run, only natural unemployment will exist. All the available resources will be fully employed in the long run.
Answer:
The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Explanation:
A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.
A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.
In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.
Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
