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Goryan [66]
2 years ago
10

The three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert ____; second step, convert ___

____, and third step, convert ______.
a) USD to GBP; CHF to GBP; CHF to USD
b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD
c) USD to CHF; GBP to CHF; GBP to USD
d) USD to CHF; CHF to GBP; GBP to USD
Business
1 answer:
Vladimir [108]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

Explanation:

A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.

A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.

In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.

Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

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jameson machinery inc. wants to release their newest equipment in the south american market before other companies in order to e
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Based on the actions of Jameson Machinery Inc, we can infer that they want to benefit from<u> First Mover Advantage. </u>

<u />

First Mover Advantage:

  • Involves being the first company or brand to enter a certain industry
  • Gives the brand a competitive advantage and customer loyalty over other competitors
  • Allows company to perfect services offered

In trying to get to South America first and having their brand established, Jameson hopes to benefit from first mover advantage which would see them have a competitive advantage over competitors that come later.

In conclusion, Jameson hopes to benefit from First-Mover Advantage.

<em />

<em>Find out more at brainly.com/question/14663095. </em>

3 0
3 years ago
(Lessee-Lessor Entries, Sales-Type Lease; Guaranteed Residual Value) Phelps Company leases a building to Walsh, Inc. on January
Artist 52 [7]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

Calculation of Minimum lease annual payments from (MLP)    

Year  MLP from lessor       Present value                   Present valur of

                  point of view    factor 8%                    cash flows

1                  $4,703                  1 /(1.08)=0925   $4,350.28

2                    $4,703                  1 /(1.08)^{\wedge} 2=0.857 $4,030.47

3                   $4,703               1 /(1.08)^{\wedge} 3=0.793  $3,729.48

4                 $4,703               1 /(1.08)^{\wedge} 4=0.735  $3,456.71

5                   $4,703              1 /(1.08)^{\wedge} 5=0.680  $3,198.04

   

Total of Minimum

lease Payments  $23,515                                       $ 18,764.97

Add    

Unguaranteed

residual value(ugrv)  4000  1 /(1.08)^{\wedge 5}=0.680  $2,720.00

Asset to be recorded

in the books of lessor

(sum of mlp +ugrv)  $27,515                             $ 21,484.97

Here        

Gross Investment=$27515        

Lease receivable recorded in in the books of lessor(Phelps)(Mimum lease payments + Unguaranteed residual )value = $21484  $21,484      

Walsh (lessee) shoiuld be recorded the amount of present value of minimum lease payments + Guaranteed Residual value=$18764.97 as asset and liabilty            

b) In the books of phelps (lessor)        

2017.01.01  Lease Recievble from walsh ….Dr  $21,484      

                                 to Asset                              $21,484      

(Being Lease receivable recorded )        

In the books of Walsh (lessee)        

2017.01.01  Asset ac ……………Dr  $18,764        

         to Lease Liabilty(Lessor)               $18,764      

(Being the asset and liabilty recorded )                

2017.12.31  Depreciation ……Dr  3752        

                            to Asset                      3752        

(Beint Depreciation recorded charged during the year recorded 18764/5 provided for 5 years)

Here annual payment started from the at the beginning of year i.e annual lease payments start from 01.01.2018.

c)  If expected residual value of $4000 is guaranteed by walsh no changes will be made in classification of lease and there is no chages in asset recorded in Lessor books. But changes will be made in the books of lessee as present value of guaranteed residual value should be added to asset I.e $18764+Present vlue of $4000     $18764+2720=21484

d)   If expected residual value of $3000 is guaranteed by walsh no changes will be made in classification of lease and there is no chages in asset recorded in Lessor books But changes will be made in the books of lessee as present value of guaranteed residual value should be added to asset    I.e $18764+Present vlue of $3000       $18764+$2040=$20804

 

5 0
3 years ago
An economy initially has 200 units of physical capital per worker. Each year, it increases the amount of physical capital by 10%
tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

266,2 units of capital per worker

Explanation:

The capital growth as stated is compound growth. Since technology and human capital are constant, there is not expected changed in productivity factors relationship, so the formula for compound growth, in this case, is: capital per worker in 3 years' time = capital per worker * (1+ annual rate growth) ^ 3. Computing numbers would be: capital per worker in 3 years' time = 200*(1+10)^3= 266,2

4 0
3 years ago
Nunavet Ocean Cruises sold an issue of 12-year ​$1,000 par bonds to build new ships. The bonds pay​ 4.85% interest, semi-annuall
frez [133]

Answer:

bond market value $660

Explanation:

We need to calculate the present value of the maturity and the cuopon payment using the effective rate of 9.7%

First we do the annuity:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C  24.25  (1,000 face value x 4.85 bond rate / 2 )

time  24.00 (12 year 2 payment a year)

rate  0.04850 (current rate divide by 2 to get it annually)

24.25 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0485)^{-24} }{0.0485} = PV\\

PV $339.55

Then present value of the maturity

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00 the face value of the bond

time   24.00

rate   0.04850

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0485)^{24} } = PV  

PV   320.89

Finally we add them together:

PV coupon payment $339.5545

PV maturity  $320.8910

Total $660.4455

rounding to nearest dollar

bond market value $660

7 0
3 years ago
How can globalization negatively affect american farmers health
Yuliya22 [10]

Explanation:

Negative Impact of globalisation:

Attraction of global market resulted in farmers shifting from traditional or mixed cropping to unsustainable cropping practices. The competition from cheaper imports pushed down the prices of crops like cotton, wheat etc making agriculture unsustainable for many farmers.

6 0
2 years ago
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