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goblinko [34]
3 years ago
5

In this excerpt from Edgar Allan Poe's "The Raven," what does the biblical reference to the healing “balm in Gilead” signify? "P

rophet!" said I, "thing of evil!—prophet still, if bird or devil!— Whether Tempter sent, or whether tempest tossed thee here ashore, Desolate, yet all undaunted, on this desert land enchanted— On this home by Horror haunted—tell me truly, I implore— Is there—is there balm in Gilead?—tell me—tell me, I implore!" Quoth the Raven, "Nevermore."
English
2 answers:
Charra [1.4K]3 years ago
8 0
B. the speaker’s desire to cure himself from the pain caused by Lenore’s death

Plato
klio [65]3 years ago
3 0
The correct answer is - <span>the speaker’s desire to cure himself from the pain caused by Lenore’s death.
</span>
The balm of Gilead is first mentioned in the Bible, as a medicinal herb used to cure ailments. When Poe mentions it in his poem "The Raven," it means that the balm is the cure for the protagonist's pain after his beloved died. He asks the raven whether he will ever be able to let go of his pain, and the raven's answer is, of course, "nevermore." 
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