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MArishka [77]
4 years ago
5

60 is what percent of 48?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Yakvenalex [24]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

80%

Inverted = 125%

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify the fraction to the most simpliest number, which is 4/5. 4/5 = 80%.

If it’s inverted (as in 60/48), the most simpliest number is 5/4. 5/4 = 125%.

Scrat [10]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

125%

Step-by-step explanation:

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The sum of three numbers is 27 the second number is three times the first while the third is twice the first find their average
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

x = first number

3x = second number

2x = third number

27 = x + 3x+ 2x

27 = 6x

x=4.5 (first number)

3(4.5) = 13.5 (second number)

2(4.5) = 9 (third number)

(4.5 + 13.5 + 9) /3 = 9

Wow after doing all that I realized that all you had to do was 27/3 since there's 3 numbers.

6 0
3 years ago
Express x3 + 4x2 – 45x in factored form.
kolbaska11 [484]
15 is the answer it is correct can
4 0
3 years ago
When you have the number 81 as your median and you have to find the missing number out of the following 82,87,77,70,80,88
Natali5045456 [20]
Uh, so, you're median is 81 already.

Since the middle two numbers are 82 and 80, you have to add them together and then divide by 2. 

However, if you're trying to add a number in, adding 81 as it is would work as well.

Hope this helps!
6 0
4 years ago
Solve the given initial-value problem. the de is of the form dy dx = f(ax + by + c), which is given in (5) of section 2.5. dy dx
shutvik [7]

\dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}=\cos(x+y)

Let v=x+y, so that \dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}-1=\dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}:

\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}=\cos v+1

Now the ODE is separable, and we have

\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=\mathrm dx

Integrating both sides gives

\displaystyle\int\frac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=\int\mathrm dx

For the integral on the left, rewrite the integrand as

\dfrac1{1+\cos v}\cdot\dfrac{1-\cos v}{1-\cos v}=\dfrac{1-\cos v}{1-\cos^2v}=\csc^2v-\csc v\cot v

Then

\displaystyle\int\frac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=-\cot v+\csc v+C

and so

\csc v-\cot v=x+C

\csc(x+y)-\cot(x+y)=x+C

Given that y(0)=\dfrac\pi2, we find

\csc\left(0+\dfrac\pi2\right)-\cot\left(0+\dfrac\pi2\right)=0+C\implies C=1

so that the particular solution to this IVP is

\csc(x+y)-\cot(x+y)=x+1

5 0
3 years ago
When we reject the null hypothesis, we would expect the variance ratio, over the long run, to be:_________
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

Cuando rechazamos la hipótesis nula, esperaríamos que la razón de varianza, a largo plazo, sea: <u>mayor al valor crítico.</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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