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VLD [36.1K]
3 years ago
12

The basketball season is about to start, and the owners of the Red Lions team want to advertise that fact in their home metropol

itan area. They plan to run a full-page newspaper ad in Metro News. The readership of Metro News is 850,000 and the cost of the ad is $82,000. What is the cost per thousand (CPM) of this campaign?
Business
1 answer:
enot [183]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$96.47

Explanation:

The Cost per thousand (CPM)  refers to the cost of a media used in reaching 1,000 members of an audience. The M in CPM is the Roman numeral for 1,000.

The formula for cost per thousand (CPM) is:

CPM = (Cost of 1 Unit of a Media Program) ÷ (Size of Media Program's Audience) x 1,000

Cost of 1 Unit of a Media Program (Cost of the ad) = $82,000

Size of Media Program's Audience(Readership of Metro News)= 850,000

Therefore:

CPM = (82000 ÷ 850000) X 1000

        =$96.47

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A bond has $1,000 face value, coupon rate of 5.6%, and yield to maturity (YTM) of 5.8%. It will mature in 15 years and the inter
ollegr [7]

Answer:

Current Yield of the bond = 0.057134 or 5.7134% rounded off to 5.71%

Explanation:

A current yield refers to the annual return that a security provides based on the interest or dividend payments it makes expressed as a percentage of it current price. Thus, the current yield on bond can be calculated as follow,

Current Yield - bond = Interest payment per year / Current price

To calculate the current yield, we need the present value or current price of the bond.

To calculate the price of the bond today, we will use the formula for the price of the bond. We assume that the interest rate provided is stated in annual terms. As the bond is a semi annual bond, the coupon payment, number of periods and semi annual YTM will be,

Coupon Payment (C) = 1000 * 0.056 * 6/12  = $28

Total periods (n) = 15 * 2 = 30  

r or YTM = 0.058 * 6/12 = 0.029 or 2.9%

The formula to calculate the price of the bonds today is attached.

Bond Price = 28 * [( 1 - (1+0.029)^-30) / 0.029]  + 1000 / (1+0.029)^30

Bond Price = $980.143753 rounded off to $980.14

Current Yield of the bond = (28 * 2)  /  980.14

Current Yield of the bond = 0.057134 or 5.7134% rounded off to 5.71%

6 0
3 years ago
Draw a Laffer curve. Label it. Draw a point on the curve at the tax rate that generates the maximum tax revenue. Label it ​T*. D
serious [3.7K]

Answer: Theoretically A

Explanation:

One implication of the Laffer curve is that reducing or increasing tax rates beyond a certain point is counter-productive for raising further tax revenue.

. In the United States, conservatives have used the Laffer Curve to argue that lower taxes may increase tax revenue. However, the hypothetical maximum revenue point of the Laffer curve for any given economy cannot be observed directly and can only be estimated – such estimates are often controversial.

4 0
3 years ago
Assessing Financial Statement Effects of Passive and Equity Method Investments On January 1, Ball Corporation purchased shares o
olga2289 [7]

Answer:

(a) See part a of the attached excel file.

(b) See part b of the attached excel file

Explanation:

(a) Assume that the stock acquired by Ball represents 15% of Leftwich's voting stock and that Ball has no influence over Leftwich's business decisions.

Note: See part a of the attached excel file for the Financial Statement Effects.

Under each transaction, the following calculations are made:

Transaction 1: Amount = Number of shares * Price per share = 10,000 * $17 = $170,000

Transaction 2: No calculation is needed as Ball has no influence over Leftwich's business decisions.

Transaction 3: Amount = Number of shares * Dividend per share = 10,000 * $1.20 = $12,000

Transaction 4: Amount = Number of shares * (Year-end market price per share - Acquisition price per share) = 10,000 * ($19 - $17) = $20,000

(b) Assume that the stock acquired by Ball represents 30% of Leftwich's voting stock and that Ball accounts for this investment using the equity method since it is able to exert significant influence.

Note: See part b of the attached excel file for the Financial Statement Effects.

Under each transaction, the following calculations are made:

Transaction 1: Amount = Number of shares * Price per share = 10,000 * $17 = $170,000

Transaction 2: Percentage of voting stock * Annual net income reported by Leftwich = 30% * $80,000 = $24,000

Transaction 3: Amount = Number of shares * Dividend per share = 10,000 * $1.20 = $12,000

Transaction 4: Amount = No calculation is needed as Ball has influence over Leftwich's business decisions.

Download xlsx
6 0
3 years ago
Mary Walket, president of Rusco Products, considers $14,000 to be the minimum cash balance for operating purposes. As can be see
Nitella [24]

1. Rusco Products

Statement of money Flows (Indirect Approach)

For the year ending New Year's Eve , 2015

Cash flows from operating activities:  

Net income  =$30,000

Add (deduct) non cash effects on operating income  

Depreciation expense  = $20,000      Movement in Account      Depreciated account: -       $50,000 - $10,000 = $40,000 - $60,000

Gain on sale of investment       $(10,000)

Loss on sale of kit    =  $2,000

Increase in deferred taxes  =   $8,000

Increase in assets   $(40,000 )  An increase should be deducted because it implies that not all sales were received in cash

Increase in inventory   =  $(50,000 ) a rise is deducted because cash was invested in inventory

Decrease in prepaid expenses      $4,000  A decrease are going to be added because no all expenses were paid in cash

Increase in accounts payable $63,000 a rise will be added as it implies that cash was generated from supplier credit

Decrease in accrued expenses $(9,000 )  A decrease is deducted as cash was spent to settle it

Net cash provided by operating activities  $18,000

Cash flows from investing activities:

Proceeds on sale of investment =30,000

Proceeds on sale of kit =8,000

Purchase of kit = $(150,000 )

Movement in Plant and Equipment account: - $300,000 - $20,000 = $280,000 - $430,000

Net cash employed by investing activities=  $(112,000)

Cash flows from financing activities:  

Bonds issued   =70,000

Proceeds from issuing stock =   $20,000  

 Movement in common shares acc: - $250,000 + $(96,000 - $80,000 = 416,000) = $266,000 - $286,000

Dividends paid= $(9,000)

Net cash provided by financing activities=  $81,000

Net decrease in cash  =$(13,000)

Cash balance at January 1, 2015 = $21,000

Cash balance at New Year's Eve , 20= $8,000

2. The free income can be calculated from the cash flow statement like this:

Operating income= $18,000

Less: Capital expenditures= (112,000)

= Free income= $94,000

3. we will see from the cash flow statement that the company:

Managed to get a positive cash flow from operations despite the heavy investment in inventories and the increase in accounts receivable by increasing its trade credit.

The cash position declined though, due to the e purchase  equipment es that was in excess of the amount raised from he bond issue.

Cash Flow Statement by the Indirect Method:

The income statement is one of the fundamental financial statements. In it, the state of the cash asset of a corporation is analyzed by reporting on how much cash was used y or provided by operating, investing, and financing activities.

Learn more about income statement:

brainly.com/question/10922478

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
"A customer is long the Swiss Franc at a cost of $.60 per SF. The customer wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX S
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

To create the collar, the customer would: <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call.</u>

Explanation:

The meaning of a "collar" is that a put is bought at a strike price that is less than the price of the underlying instrument (this implies that a floor has been put on the price of the instrument); and that a call is disposed at a strike price which is higher than the price of the underlying instrument (this indicates that a ceiling above which the instrument will be called away has been created).

When a collar is put on the price, it indicates that the customer is majorly giving a guarantee for the underlying instrument's minimum and maximum price.

This should make the net cost of the collar to be close to zero due to the fact that the two contracts are "out the money" and also because the premium paid to buy the put is offset by the premium received when the call was sold.

Therefore, since customer in the question wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX SF FLEX options, he would <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call</u> to create the collar.

3 0
3 years ago
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