Answer:
Fixed-charge coverage ratio
Explanation:
The fixed-charge coverage ratio can be regarded as a rato that gives the measurements of the ability of a firm have to cover all her fixed charges. These fixed charges could be expense as well as debt payments and interest. It displays the wellness that earnings of a company has to cover its fixed expenses. This ratio is considered by bank before they lend money to a business. It should be noted that Fixed-charge coverage ratio measures the number of dollars of operating cash available to meet each dollar of interest and other fixed charges that the firm owes.
Answer:
FV= $1,260,205.98
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual deposit= $5,250
Number of years= 35 years
Annual interest rate= 0.0947
To calculate the final value, we need to use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {5,250*[(1.0947^35)-1] / 0.0947
FV= $1,260,205.98
Answer:
d. they have a large cohort of technically skilled university graduates who work for about one-fifth the pay of comparable American workers.
Explanation:
In the context of international trade, India, China, and the Philippines attract multibillion-dollar investments because: they have a large cohort of technically skilled university graduates who work for about one-fifth the pay of comparable American workers.
One of the major attractions of international trade is the exploitation of intellectual property and skills.
In China for example, research has shown that one major reasons why international trade grew was as a result of the number of Chinese workers, and the fact that they produced a sharp, sustained increase in productivity (that is, increased worker efficiency). Not to mention that the cost of labor was far cheaper than in America or Europe.
Answer:
b) Managerial hubris
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that the term that is often used to describe this would be Managerial hubris. This term refers to the unrealistic belief by managers that believe that they can manage a target firm's assets better than that firm's current management. Which is what is happening in this scenario since the managers at Winter Wonder believe that they can do a better job at managing the Sleds by Bob business better that their current managers.
Answer:
Current dividend per share paid (Do)
= <u>Total dividend </u>
No of shares outstanding
= <u>$1,600,000</u>
1,000,000 shares
= $1.60 per share
Current market price = $31
Growth rate = 8% = 0.08
Ke = Do<u>(1 + g)</u> + g
Po
Ke = $1.60<u>(1 + 0.08)</u> + 0.08
$31
Ke = 0.1357 = 13.57%
Interest rate on borrowing (Kd) = 10%
Tax rate (T) = 40% = 0.40
WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)(1-T)
WACC = 13.57(65/100) + 10(35/100)(1 - 0.4)
WACC = 8.82 + 2.10
WACC = 10.9%
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
In this case, we need to calculate cost of equity. The cost of debt has been given, which is the interest rate on long-term borrowing (10%). Since the debt proportion in the capital structure is 35% and equity proportion is 65%, it implies that the value of the firm is 100%. Then, WACC is the aggregate of cost of each stock and the proportion of each stock in the capital structure.
