Answer:
correct option is A. $5,087
Explanation:
given data
March 1, 2016, inventory: 1,000 gallons @ $7.20 = $7,200
Purchases amount Sales
Mar. 10 600 gals @ $7.25 4350 Mar. 5 400 gals
Mar. 16 800 gals @ $7.30 5840 Mar. 14 700 gals
Mar. 23 600 gals @ $7.35 4410 Mar. 20 500 gals
Mar. 26 700 gals
total 3000 @7.267 21800
cost of good sold 2300 @ 7.267 16714
so
balance is = 3000 - 2300 = 700 @ 7.267
ending inventory is $5087
so correct option is A. $5,087
Answer:
wages and prices are often inflexible in the downward direction.
Explanation:
John Maynard Keynes was a British economist born on the 5th of June, 1883 in Cambridge, England. He was famous for his brilliant ideas on government economic policy and macroeconomics which is known as the Keynesian theory. He later died on the 23rd of April, 1946 in Sussex, England.
Keynes believed that wages and prices are often inflexible in the downward direction.
In Economics, when there are monetary disturbances and a great level of macroeconomic factors in the economy of a particular country, this usually result in prices of goods and services being sticky.
Answer:
travel agency
Explanation:
as service businesses include <u>companies engaged in transport</u>, food service, distribution, retail, and other industries that sell services rather than products. These intangibles provide the primary revenue source for service businesses.
Answer:
$44,955.10
$38,131.84
Explanation:
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator
Investment X
Cash flow each year from year 1 to 9 = $6900
I = 7%
PV = $44,955.10
Investment Y
Cash flow each year from year 1 to 5 = $9300
I = 7%
PV = $38,131.84
To find the PV using a financial calculator:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
a)
In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0
Year 1 =$150000
Subsequent years= $0
b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.
Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.
Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.