The middle class was different after the industrial revolution than it was before because prior to the Industrial Revolution, Europe had a small middle class. Following the Industrial Revolution, the middle class greatly grew.
After the industrial revolution, the lower classes were been able to "rise up" economically by getting new jobs in factories, thus much of the lower class entered the middle class.
France and Spain, for instance, were governed by autocratic sovereigns whose rule was absolute; their colonists went to America as servants of the Crown. The English colonists, on the other hand, enjoyed far more freedom.
Spanish and French colonist were only going to the Americas for for trade ,gold and silver. England went there to get religious freedom and land.
The Spanish and English colonies were slightly alike in the poor and unfair treatment of indigenous people and substantially different in religion and economic base. The Spanish and English were slightly comparable in terms of treatment of indigenous people. It was different .
To know more about Spanish and English colonies here
brainly.com/question/8695886
#SPJ4
During the Dark Ages of Greece, the significant old settlements were surrendered with the remarkable particular case of Athens, and the population dropped drastically in numbers. Later in the Dark Ages somewhere in the range of 950 and 750 BCE), Greeks relearned how to compose by and by, yet this time as opposed to utilizing the Linear B content used by the Mycenaean’s, they embraced the letter set used by the Phoenicians "enhancing in a principal path by presenting vowels as letters.
Higher population (more workers) and better relations/trade with England"
