The answer would be 150 as each ten bar is si worth 10 and 10x15=150.
Answer:
Can not be determined.
Step-by-step explanation:
We can easily notice that the limit is x tends to infinity, whereas x is not present in the given function, we are given (1 + 1/n). So we can not evaluate the given limit for x as parameter, we must have some function of x to solve this problem.
Hence, option C is correct i.e. the limit can not be determined.
For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.
Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77
therefore,
n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5
n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5
and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.
The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)
n*p = ?
n*q = ?
Learn to know more about binomial experiments at
brainly.com/question/1580153
#SPJ4
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The coefficient of x is simply a number. The x gives it it's meaning. So if the coefficient of x changed from 2 to 6 that would mean there would 6 x's being added to five, not 2.
For example if x=2.
instead of 5 + 2*2
(which equals 9)
it would be 5 + 6*2
(which equals 17).
The difference between the answers is 4x, as there are an additional 4x's.
Hope this helps :)
I believe the correct answer is 42.25%
