The probabilities of knocking down zero, one, and two pins are
and
, respectively. The total probability of knocking down at most two is thus
, or
.
You are correct, the profit is modeled by:
-0.1t² + 6t + 67
We are also told that "t" is the number of years after 2010. So in 2016, the value of t will be 6. We substitute this into the equation we formed:
-0.1(6²) + 6(6) + 67
= 106.6 thousand dollars
Answer: Answer is C.
Step-by-step explanation: It is because positive numbers go to the right, and negative numbers to the left.
Hope that helps :)
