Answer:
(a) $190,000
(b) $2,185,000
(c) $3,125,900
(d) $841,090
(e) $561,260
(f) $1,200,000
Explanation:
Rainier and Yakima Company several balances are omitted. These are calculated with reverse calculation. The material inventory at beginning of may is added with the purchases made and then ending inventory is subtracted to identify cost of goods manufactured.
Answer: Total Revenue is $100 and the price elasticity is 0.4
Explanation: total revenue is computed as Price * Quantity
$0.5 * 200= $100
Elasticity is the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price.
Old price $1
New price $0.5
Old quantity 75
New quantity 200
Formula- % change in quantity demanded / % change in pride
NB change is (old-new)
Change in Qd= (75-200) / 75 =-1.67
Change in price=(1-0.5)/1=0.5
-1.67/0.5= -3.34
The negative is ignored in price elasticity and the answer is 3.34 which means the product is Elastic
Answer:
D. Deflation
Explanation:
"Consumer Price Index" <em>(CPI)</em> measures the changes in the weighted average of prices of a market basket (consisting of consumer goods and services). It tells the<u> cost of living for every consumer. </u>
"Inflation" refers to the sustained increase of prices of goods and services while "deflation" refers to the sustained decrease of prices of goods and services.
In the situation above, the CPI is considered lower than before, thus <u>deflation</u> must have occurred during the second six-year period. It shows a <u>negative inflation rate.</u>
So, this explains the answer.
Answer:
a. the difference between actual and budgeted fixed overhead costs.
Explanation:
As we know that
The variance is shows the difference between the actual amount and the budgeted amount or estimate amount
So, the total fixed overhead variance is the difference between the actual fixed overhead costs and the budgeted fixed overhead costs i.e to be fixed in nature
Hence, the first option is correct
Answer: The Break-Even Point will reduce from $4,285.71 to $4,125
Explanation:
To get the Break-Even Point we can divide Fixed Assets by the Contribution margin.
The Contribution Margin is the Selling Price minus the Variable Cost.
For Scenario 1 the Break-Even Point will be,
= 15,000 / ( 6 - 2.50)
= $4,285.71
For Scenario 2 the Break-Even Point is,
= 16,500 / 6.5 -2.5
= $4,125
The Break-Even Point for Scenario 2 means that even though the higher Fixed Costs could have led to a higher Break-Even Point, the higher price contributed more than the fixed costs did and led to an ultimately lower Break-Even Point than the first Scenario.
