All categories

3 years ago

Please help me fast!!

Mathematics

1 answer:

elixir [45]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

$y = -\frac{1}{4}x$

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The slope-intercept form of a linear equation is $y = mx + b$ , where y = y-coordinate, m = slope, x = x-coordinate, and b = slope.

2. To find the slope, let's take the two points (0,0) and (-40,10). After that, let's plug in the values to their corresponding variable in the formula: $\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}$

$\frac{10-0}{-40-0}$
$\frac{10}{-40}$
$-\frac{1}{4}$

3. Since we now know our slope, the equation looks like this so far: $y = -\frac{1}{4}x + b$ .

4. Because b is the y-intercept, b = 0 because the line intersects the y-axis at (0,0).

5. Now that we have the values of m and b, we plug in them to get the equation of: $y=-\frac{1}{4}x$

You might be interested in

Find an equation of the line through (2,6) and parallel to y=2x+3

Setler [38]

Step-by-step explanation:

We first Find the Slope of the line y=2x+3

The Slope Intercept Form of the equation of a given line is:

y=mx+c

where m is the Slope of that line, and c is the Y intercept.

For this line, the Slope is 2

So the Slope of the line PARALLEL to y=2x+3 will also be 2. And we are given that it passes through the point (2,6)

The Point-Slope form of the Equation of a Straight Line is:

(y−k)=m⋅(x−h)

m is the Slope of the Line

(h,k) are the co-ordinates of any point on that Line.

Here, we have been given the coordinates (h,k) of 1 point on that line as (2,6)

And the Slope m is 2

Substituting the values of h,k and m in the Point-Slope form, we get

(y−2)=(2)⋅(x−6)

(y−2)=2⋅(x-6)

y−2=2x -12

y=2x -12 +2

y=2x-10

The graph will look like

graph{y=2x -10 10 [10, -10, 5, - 5]}

3 0

3 years ago

Write the equation of the line that

Misha Larkins [42]

Answer: y = -1/5x + 2

Work in pic:

7 0

3 years ago

Write 5.6% as a decimal

Charra [1.4K]

.56 is ur answer.......

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please complete z2+9z-90=(z-6)(z+?) ...?

notka56 [123]

The answer is: (z - 6)(z + 15)

z² + 9z - 90 = z*z + 15z - 6z - 6*15 =
= (z*z + 15z) - (6z + 6*15) =
= z(z + 15) - 6(z + 15) =
= (z - 6)(z + 15)

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Suppose I ask you to pick any four cards at random from a deck of 52, without replacement, and bet you one dollar that at least

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

a) No, because you have only 33.8% of chances of winning the bet.

b) No, because you have only 44.7% of chances of winning the bet.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Of the total amount of cards (n=52 cards) there are 12 face cards (3 face cards: Jack, Queen, or King for everyone of the 4 suits: clubs, diamonds, hearts and spades).

The probabiility of losing this bet is the sum of:

- The probability of having a face card in the first turn

- The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.

- The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

- The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

1) The probability of having a face card in the first turn

In this case, the chances are 12 in 52:

$P_1=P(face\, card)=12/52=0.231$

2) The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.

In this case, first we have to get a non-face card (there are 40 in the dech of 52), and then, with the rest of the cards (there are 51 left now), getting a face card:

$P_2=P(non\,face\,card)*P(face\,card)=(40/52)*(12/51)=0.769*0.235=0.181$

3) The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the first and second turn.

In this case, first we have to get two consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

$P_3=(40/52)*(39/51)*(12/50)\\\\P_3=0.769*0.765*0.240=0.141$

4) The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

In this case, first we have to get three consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

$P_4=(40/52)*(39/51)*(38/50)*(12/49)\\\\P_4=0.769*0.765*0.76*0.245=0.109$

With these four probabilities we can calculate the probability of losing this bet:

$P=P_1+P_2+P_3+P_4=0.231+0.181+0.141+0.109=0.662$

The probability of losing is 66.2%, which is the same as saying you have (1-0.662)=0.338 or 33.8% of winning chances. Losing is more probable than winning, so you should not take the bet.

b) If the bet involves 3 cards, the only difference with a) is that there is no probability of getting the face card in the fourth turn.

We can calculate the probability of losing as the sum of the first probabilities already calculated:

$P=P_1+P_2+P_3=0.231+0.181+0.141=0.553$

There is 55.3% of losing (or 44.7% of winning), so it is still not convenient to bet.

5 0

4 years ago