Answer:
The correct option is;

Step-by-step explanation:
The given expression is presented as follows;

Which can be expanded into the following form;

From which we have;


Therefore, substituting the value of n = 50 we have;


Which gives;



Therefore, we have;
.
The answer is B.
The only reason it will be 200 is because the numbers 1,2,3,4,5,and 6 are all an option so the probability of 5 is 1/6 and if you multiply 1/6 by 1,200 you will get 200. Hope this helped!
Answer:
The simplified expression is 16^-1/6
Step-by-step explanation:.
16^5/4•16^1 /4/ (16^1/2)^2
The dot means multiplication. The expression is rewritten as
16^5/4 × 16^1/4 / (16^1/2)^2
Recall the following rules of indices
1) y^a × y^b = y^(a+b)
2) (y^a)^b = y^ab
y^b/ y^a = y^(b-a)
Applying these rules of indices
16^5/4 × 16^1/4= 16^((5/4×1/4) = 16^((5/16)
(16^1/2)^2= 16^ 1/2×2 = 16^1 = 16
Therefore
16^5/4 × 16^1/4 / (16^1/2)^2
= 16^(5/16) /16
=16^(5/6) × 16^-1
= 16^ (5/6)-1
= 16^-1/6)
,The simplified expression is 16^-1/6
Answer:
33
Step-by-step explanation:
Area of a rectangle is length * width