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romanna [79]
3 years ago
5

Answer this question please answerWhole number 34 to 77​

Mathematics
2 answers:
alexira [117]3 years ago
4 0
42 is the right one for this problem have a good day
givi [52]3 years ago
3 0

There are 42 whole numbers between 34 to 77

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All four sides of the baseball diamond are 90 ft long.
anastassius [24]

Answer:

d. 180 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
About 16 % of the population of a large country is allergic to pollen. If two people are randomly selected, what is the probabil
Vinvika [58]

Answer:

(a) 0.0256

(b) 0.2944

Step-by-step explanation:

For solving this exercise we can apply the binomial distribution. The equation that give as the probability is:

P(x,n,p)=(nCx)*p^{x} *(1-p)^{n-x}

Where n is the number of identical events, p is the probability that the event has a success and x is the number of success in the n identical events.

Additionally, nCx is calculated as:

nCx=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

So, in this case we have 2 identical events because we are going to select two people randomly and the probability p of success is the probability that the person is allergic to pollen and this probability is 16%.

Then, for the first case, x is 2 because their are asking for the probability that both are allergic to pollen. Replacing the values of x, n and p we get:

P(2,2,0.16)=(2C2)*0.16^{2} *(1-0.16)^{2-2}

P(2,2,0.16)=0.0256

For the second case, their are asking for the probability that at least one is allergic to pollen, that means that we need to sum the probability that both are allergic to pollen with the probability that just one is allergic to pollen.

Using the same equation to calculate P(1,2,0.16) we get:

P(1,2,0.16)=(2C1)*0.16^{1} *(1-0.16)^{2-1}

P(1,2,0.16)=0.2688

So, the probability that at least one person is allergic to pollen is 0.2944 and it is calculated as:

0.0256 + 0.2688 = 0.2944

7 0
3 years ago
5% of what number is 85?
Semmy [17]
5% = 0.5

0.5n = 85

Divide by 0.5

0.5n = 85
/0.5      /0.5

n = 170.

The number is 170.
8 0
3 years ago
HELPPPPPP ); WILL GIVE BRAINLIST.
Black_prince [1.1K]
<h3>Answer:</h3>
  • f(1) = 2
  • No. The remainder was not 0.
<h3>Explanation:</h3>

Synthetic division is quick and not difficult to learn. The number in the upper left box is the value of x you're evaluating the function for (1). The remaining numbers across the top are the coefficients of the polynomial in decreasing order by power (the way they are written in standard form). The number at lower left is the same as the number immediately above it—the leading coefficient of the polynomial.

Each number in the middle row is the product of the x-value (the number at upper left) and the number in the bottom row just to its left. The number in the bottom row is the sum of the two numbers above it.

So, the number below -4 is the product of x (1) and 1 (the leading coefficient). That 1 is added to -4 to give -3 on the bottom row. Then that is multiplied by 1 (x, at upper left) and written in the next column of the middle row. This proceeds until you run out of numbers.

The last number, at lower right, is the "remainder", also the value of f(x). Here, it is 2 (not 0) for x=1, so f(1) = 2.

5 0
3 years ago
6 + −28 − x = -2<br> -------------<br> x
nexus9112 [7]
The answer is x=-20.
6+ -28 -x =-2
You first add 28 to each side=6+-x=26 then you minus 6 from each side=-x=20.
Then you divide 20 by -x resulting in x=-20
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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