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Vikki [24]
3 years ago
11

I need help fast!!!! Can’t figure these out at all!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Sati [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: GH = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Don't panic! Remember that a perpendicular bisector divides a segment equally in half. (If you're writing a proof, cite the "Definition of a perpendicular bisector)

It breaks down to: GH = HI

HI = 12

By the transitive property of segment congruence: GH = 12

Good luck!

Serggg [28]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

im sorry but i really cant see the image

Step-by-step explanation:

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Let g' be the group of real matricies of the form [1 x 0 1]. Is the map that sends x to this matrix an isomorphism?
aliina [53]

Yes. Conceptually, all the matrices in the group have the same structure, except for the variable component x. So, each matrix is identified by its top-right coefficient, since the other three entries remain constant.

However, let's prove in a more formal way that

\phi:\ \mathbb{R} \to G,\quad \phi(x) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right]

is an isomorphism.

First of all, it is injective: suppose x \neq y. Then, you trivially have \phi(x) \neq \phi(y), because they are two different matrices:

\phi(x) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right],\quad \phi(y) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&y\\0&1\end{array}\right]

Secondly, it is trivially surjective: the matrix

\phi(x) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right]

is clearly the image of the real number x.

Finally, \phi and its inverse are both homomorphisms: if we consider the usual product between matrices to be the operation for the group G and the real numbers to be an additive group, we have

\phi (x+y) = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x+y\\0&1\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&x\\0&1\end{array}\right] \cdot \left[\begin{array}{cc}1&y\\0&1\end{array}\right] = \phi(x) \cdot \phi(y)

8 0
4 years ago
PLZ HELP IM IN 8TH GRADE
jok3333 [9.3K]

Answer:

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1 answer

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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Trisha has a game board as shown below, which is a square that has a total area of 400 square inches. The area of the large circ
Mazyrski [523]

Answer: First option is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

Total area of square inches = 400

The area of the large circle = 314

Now, we need to find the probability that Trisha will not get any points with one randomly thrown dart that lands somewhere inside the square,

Let E be the event the Trisha will get points .

so,

P(E)=\frac{314}{400}

As we know that

P(E')=1-P(E)\\\\P(E')=1-\frac{314}{400}\\\\P(E')=\frac{400-314}{400}\\\\P(E')=\frac{86}{400}\\\\P(E')=0.215=0.22

So, Probability that Trisha will not get any points with one randomly thrown dart that lands somewhere inside the square = 0.22

So, First option is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
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The lengths of pregnancies are normally distributed with a mean of 268 days and a standard deviation of 15 days.
Zarrin [17]
Let the lengths of pregnancies be X
X follows normal distribution with mean 268 and standard deviation 15 days
z=(X-269)/15

a. P(X>308)
z=(308-269)/15=2.6
thus:
P(X>308)=P(z>2.6)
=1-0.995
=0.005

b] Given that if the length of pregnancy is in lowest is 44%, then the baby is premature. We need to find the length that separates the premature babies from those who are not premature.
P(X<x)=0.44
P(Z<z)=0.44
z=-0.15
thus the value of x will be found as follows:
-0.05=(x-269)/15
-0.05(15)=x-269
-0.75=x-269
x=-0.75+269
x=268.78
The length that separates premature babies from those who are not premature is 268.78 days
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Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

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