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pickupchik [31]
3 years ago
15

Someone plz help me :(

Mathematics
2 answers:
just olya [345]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

B and E :)

shepuryov [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: your answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps brainliest?

You might be interested in
Give the answer please
Nataliya [291]

The inverse of a function is given as √x - 1

<h3>Inverse of a function</h3>

To get the inverse of any function f(x) we need to ensure that it passes the horizontal line test.

Given the following function

f(x) = (x+1)^2

Let y= f(x) to have:

y = (x+1)^2

Replace y with x to have:

x = (y+1)^2

Make y the subject of the formula

√x =y + 1

Subtract 1 from both sides

√x - 1 = y

Swap

y = √x - 1

Hence the inverse of a function is given as √x - 1

Learn more on inverse of a function here: brainly.com/question/3831584

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
A translation has this rule: (x - 5, y). What is the translation?
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

For example (7-5,y)

7-5=2

————————-————-—————————-

 0.       2.         5.         7

           |        7-5           |

           |———————- |

     You would move to the right 5 units.

6 0
3 years ago
Dillon plans to invest $16,000 part at 4% simple interest and the rest at 5% simple interest what is the most he can invest at 4
marishachu [46]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The simple interest formula is P * r * t = I, where P is the initial investment, r is the interest rate in decimal form, t is the time in years.  This problem would be best solved by making a table, one row for account 1 and one row for account 2 with the formula along the top:

              P     *     r     *     t     =     I

acct 1

acct 2

First let's fill in our years.  The words "per year" were used, so the time in each row is a 1:

            P     *      r      *      t       =      I

acct 1                                 1

acct 2                                1

Now let's fill in the interest rates as decimals:

         P     *     r     *     t     =     I

acct 1            .04          1

acct 2           .05          1

Now for the principle amount.  If all we have to invest is 16000 and we put x into one account, then all we have left to put into the other account is what's left after taking x out of 16000, or 16000 - x.

                     P      *      r      *      t      =      I

acct 1             x           .04           1

acct 2   16000 - x       .05          1

The formula tells us that we multiply the P times the r times the t to get I, so lets do that.  Multiply straight across the top to get an interest of .04x.  Multiply straight across the bottom to get an interest of .05(16000 - x) which, after distributing, is 800 - .05x:

                 P      *      r      *      t      =      I

acct 1         x           .04            1      =    .04x

acct 2   16000-x    .05            1      =   800 - .05x

We need the amount of interest that we earn from both of these accounts to equal 700, so add the last column and set it equal to 700:

.04x + 800 - .05x = 700.  Combine like terms to get

-.01x = -100 so

x = 10,000

That means that the account which has an interest rate of 4% can have 10,000 in it while the other account has 6,000 in it.

5 0
3 years ago
Two brothers each purchase a new pair of hiking boots and two canteens. The hiking
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer: 2(34) + 2c = 98

Step-by-step explanation:

C = cost of one canteen

2 pair of boots at $ 34 each plus 2 canteens at (c) each totals $98.

2(34) + 2c = 98

68 +2c = 98. Subtract 68 from both sides. 68 - 68 +2c = 98 -68

2c = 30. Divide both sides by 2.

2c/2 = 30/2

c = 15 so each canteen costs $15

Check: 2 ($34) + 2 ($15) = $98

$68 + $30 = $98

$98 = $98

2C = 98

6 0
3 years ago
On a game show, a contestant randomly chooses a chip from a bag that contains numbers and stripes. The theoretical probability o
Lapatulllka [165]

*I'm going to assume you meant stripes.

Answer:

So in total there are 15 chips in the bag.

9 of them are stripes and 6 are numbers.

Step-by-step explanation:

So there are 9 stripes in the bag.

The probability of getting a stripe is 3/5

This means that for every 5 chips that the contestant pulls out, 3 of them should be stripes. This also means 2 of them are numbers.

So we know that 9 of the chips in the bag are stripes. To find the total number of stripes we should divide 9 by 3/5:

\frac{9}{\frac{3}{5}} = 9 * \frac{5}{3}

So we get:

\frac{45}{3} = 15

8 0
3 years ago
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