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crimeas [40]
3 years ago
12

Which number line shows the solution to 5 + (−5)?

Mathematics
2 answers:
alex41 [277]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

first one is A  and the second one is B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Yakvenalex [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

b on both

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 ft<br> 10 ft<br> Perimeter:<br> Area:
Crazy boy [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

The area = 3 × 10 = 30

The perimeter = 2(3 + 10) = 26

please give me a brainliest answer

8 0
2 years ago
Which of the following must be true?
meriva

Answer:

BC < ED ⇒ answer A

Step-by-step explanation:

* Lets revise some facts in the triangle

- If one side of a triangle is longer than another side, then the angle

 opposite the longer side will be larger than the angle opposite the

 shorter side

- If one angle in a triangle is larger than another angle in a triangle,

 then the side opposite the larger angle will be longer than the side

 opposite the smaller angle

* Lets solve the problem

- In the two triangles BCD and DEB

∵ CD = 8 and BE = 8

∴ CD = BE

∵ Side BD is a common side in the two triangles

- The third side in Δ BCD is BC and the third side in DEB is DE

∵ BC is the opposite side to the angle of measure 24°

∵ ED is the opposite side to the angle of measure 30°

∵ The measure 24° < the measure 30°

∴ The side opposite to the angle of measure 24° < the side opposite

   to the angle of measure 30°

∵ The other two sides of the 2 triangles BCD and DEB are equal

∴ We can compare between the 3rd sides in the Δ BCD and Δ DEB

∴ BC < ED

7 0
3 years ago
Write the multiplicative inverse of 1.725. Enter your answer as a fraction in its simplest form. The multiplicative inverse of 1
Katarina [22]
Multiplicative inverse is a number which when multiplied with the current number, the answer unit (that is, 1).

Now,
1.725 = 1725/1000 = 69/40

Inverting this and multiplying it with the results yields 1. That is,

69/40*40/69 = 1
Therefore, the multiplicative inverse of 1.725 is 40/69
8 0
3 years ago
Why do the probability of an event and the probability of its complement add up to 1
Ad libitum [116K]
<span>the probability of an event and the probability of its complement add up to 1 because the total events are the even it self and its compliment, so its probability equal to 1 because these are all the possible events that will occur. for example a coin toss, an event head will happen 0.5, and its complement is tails which will also happens 0.5</span>
5 0
3 years ago
What is 5,8904 time 10,3097
Schach [20]
The answer is 6,072,825,688
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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