Answer:
43.4
Step-by-step explanation:
You will need to use the phythagoream therom, which is a² + b² = c². Plug the values in for the variables to get 7² + b² = 44², (c would equal the hypothenuse because the hypothenuse is the longest side of the triangle.) Square the values to get 49 + b² = 1936. Subtract 49 from both sides to get b² = 1887, then take the square root of both sides to get b = 43.4 (rounded to the nearest tenth.)
I am really sorry if I'm wrong, but have a good day/night! :)
In this question, let us first note down all the important information's that have been provided in the question.
The number of people that Adam is cooking for = 14
Amount of turkey required per person = 3/4 pounds
Now
Total amount of turkey required by Adam to cook for 14 people = (3/4) * 14
= 21/2
So 21/2 pound of turkey is required by Adam to cook for 14 people. This weight of turkey has to be converted to gram first and then to kilogram.
We already know
1 lb = 450 g
Then
21/2 lb = 450 * (21/2) gram
= 225 * 21
= 4721 gram
Now again we know
1000 g = 1 kg
4721 gm = (4721/1000) kg
= 4.721 kg
So Adam needs to have a turkey weighing 4.721 gram to cook for the 14 people. I hope the procedure is clear to you.
Complete question is;
Regarding the violation of multicollinearity, which of the following description is wrong?
a. It changes the intercept of the regression line.
b. It changes the sign of the slope.
c. It changes the slope of the regression line.
d. It changes the value of F-tests.
e. It changes the value of T-tests
Answer:
a. It changes the intercept of the regression line
Step-by-step explanation:
Multicollinearity is a term used in multiple regression analysis to show a high correlation between independent variables of a study.
Since it deals with independent variables correlation, it means it must be found before getting the regression equation.
Now, looking at the options, the one that doesn't relate with multicollinearity is option A because the intercept of the regression line is the value of y that is predicted when x is 0. Meanwhile, multicollinearity from definition above does in no way change the intercept of the regression line because it doesn't predict the y-value when x is zero.
0 and 1 are neither prime nor composite. A prime is any number greater than 1 that has just 1 and itself as factors. Primes can only start at x > 1
When that happens (when you start with numbers greater than one) p^2 is a composite consisting of 2 primes, so any composite will obey the law that he number will have at least 3 factors making it up -- in this case p p^2 and 1.
So the answer to the question by definition is that 0 numbers can have the property of both p and p^2 to be prime.
Answer:
-2
Step-by-step explanation:
