Please help me with math and thank you

PLS HELP!!!!ILL MARK YOU THE BRAINLISt

Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

(x+y)/xy or (1/x + 1/y) portion of the leaves

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the total work done to rake the leaves be a for representation.

Thus,

given Maya takes x minutes to rake the leaves

thus,

work done by may in x minutes = a

dividing both side by x

work done by maya in x/x = 1 minutes = a/x

similarly

given Calra takes y minutes to rake the leaves

thus,

work done by may in y minutes = a

dividing both side by y

work done by maya in y/y = 1 minutes = a/y

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Total work done by both in 1 minutes = a/x + a/y = a(1/x+1/y) = a(x+y)/xy

Thus, if a is the total work , then they do (x+y)/xy of a work in one minute.

Thus, (x+y)/xy portion of leaves do they rake in one minute if they work together.

8 0

3 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

3 years ago

Yikes mctugg bought 1/2pound of potato salad . He ate 2/3of it for lunch .How much potato salad was left for an afternoon snack

Anna007 [38]