Answer:
Never because one of them goes 1k8 and one of them goes 24 so if they that song every time then it would be the same time diffrence even if you try a million tinmes
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is
.
Step-by-step explanation:
We want to solve for y in the given equation. We can do this by rearranging the equation and using operational techniques to simplify.







Because we have the <em>y</em>-variable isolated from the rest of the equation, we are done!
Answer:
2iiej
Step-by-step explanation:
1kejes191828wusnalao
It usually works well to do what the instructions tell you. Multiply each diameter by 3.14.
a) 3.14×6 cm = 18.84 cm
b) [can't read the picture]
d) 3.14×9 in = 28.26 in
e) 3.14×11 mm = 34.54 mm
Firstly , we can draw diagram
we can see that
adjacent = 850
opposite =250
so, we can use tan formula


16.38

so,
angle of depression is 16.38 degree........Answer