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Gre4nikov [31]
2 years ago
7

Help me please thank you

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lapatulllka [165]2 years ago
4 0
To find the slope, use the simple rule rise/run. The change in the y value over the change in the x value. The y changes by -1 when the x changes by positive 2. Therefore, the slope is -1/2.
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Thickness measurements of ancient prehistoric Native American pot shards discovered in a Hopi village are approximately normally
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

a) 0.0869 = 8.69% probability that the thickness is less than 3.0 mm

b) 0.0668 = 6.68% probability that the thickness is more than 7.0 mm

Step-by-step explanation:

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

In this problem, we have that:

\mu = 4.9, \sigma = 1.4

(a) the thickness is less than 3.0 mm

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 3.

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{3 - 4.9}{1.4}

Z = -1.36

Z = -1.36 has a pvalue of 0.0869

0.0869 = 8.69% probability that the thickness is less than 3.0 mm

(b) the thickness is more than 7.0 mm

This is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 7. So

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{7 - 4.9}{1.4}

Z = 1.5

Z = 1.5 has a pvalue of 0.9332

1 - 0.9332 = 0.0668

0.0668 = 6.68% probability that the thickness is more than 7.0 mm

5 0
3 years ago
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Eduardwww [97]

Answer: Choice #2

Step-by-step explanation: The slope of -1/4 means that the line is ascending to the left, which rules out the first and last choice. The y-intercept of -3 means that it crosses the y-axis at (0,-3). This is why it is #2.

Brainliest please?

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Mademuasel [1]

$10.83 because you need to divide 6.50 by .6 to get that answer approximately.

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harina [27]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

Asset B generate most benefit.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Greater the correlation coefficient greater the strength between two variables.

Since here It is given that Correlation Coefficient between risk reduction and Asset B is higher (i.e. 60%) than the Correlation Coefficient between risk reduction and Asset A (i.e. 40%).

Thus, Asset B generate most benefit.

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