I NEED A QUICK ANSWER I WILL GIVE YOU BRAINLIEST!!! If I drive 20 minutes a day for 185 days how many hours would that be?

1 answer:

8 0

I think its about 62 hours because you multiply the 185 days by 20 minutes and get 3,700 so you divide that by 60 and get 61.6666667. so the answer is 62 hours?

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Jill earns a yearly salary of $40,000 plus 15% commission on total sales. Shonda earns $55,000 yearly salary plus 10% commission

mixer [17]

Answer: Jill earned $22,500

Step-by-step explanation:

J - S = $152,500 - $130,000 = $22,500

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2 years ago

Light travels at 3.0 x 108 km/s. How far does light travel in 5 minutes? A) 1.5 x 1010 km B) 1.5 x 1011 km C) 9.0 x 109 km D) 9.

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<span>D) 9.0 x 10^10 km This is more an exercise in handling scientific notation than anything else. Since we have the distance that light travels in 1 second and we want to calculate how far it travels in 5 minutes, we must first calculate how many seconds are in 5 minutes. Simply multiplying 5 by 60 gives us 300 seconds. Now we need to multiply 300 by 3.0x10^8 km. So 300 * 3.0x10^8 = ? We could first convert 300 into scientific notion, but it's easier to just leave it along and assume that it's 300 x 10^0. So 300 times 3 is 900. And since 0 plus 8 is 8, we have as the answer: 900 x 10^8 But we're not done. The significand has to be greater than or equal to 1 and less than 10. So let's divide 900 by 100 and add 2 to the exponent. So we get 9 x 10^10 Finally, since our data had 2 significant figures, our result should have that as well. So let's add the 2nd digit getting: 9.0 x 10^10 So we know that light travels 9.0x10^10 km in 5 minutes, and that answer matches option "D" from the available choices.</span>

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3 years ago

Suppose that the probability that any particle emitted by a radioactive material will penetrate a certain shield is 0.01. If 10

AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

a)P=0.42

b) $n\geq 297$

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a binomial distribution, since the result of each experiment admits only two categories (success and failure) and the value of both possibilities is constant in all experiments. The probability of getting k successes in n trials is given by:

$P=\begin{pmatrix}n\\ k\end{pmatrix} p^k(1-p)^{n-k}=\frac{n!}{k!(n!-k!)}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$

a) we have k=2, n=10 and p=0.01:

$P=\frac{10!}{2!(10!-2!)}0.01^2(1-0.01)^{10-2}\\P=\frac{10!}{2!*8!}0.01^2(0.99)^{8}\\P=45*0.01^2(0.99)^8=0.42$

b) We have, $1-(1-p)^n=P$ , Here P is the probability that at least one particle will penetrate the shield, this probabity has to be equal or greater than 0.95. Therefore, this will be equal to subtract from the total probability, the probability that the particles do not penetrate raised to the total number of particles.