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Brut [27]
3 years ago
8

20 is 1/10 (one tenth) of what number?

Mathematics
1 answer:
NARA [144]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

20 is 1/10 of 200.

Step-by-step explanation:

100*(1/10) = 10

200*(1/10) = 20

Since 100 times 1/10 is 10, all you have to do is double it. So now, 200 times 1/10 is 20.

:) Hope this helps!

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Use Long Division to answer number 4. Please show all work!​
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

2x² + 3x + 4 + (17x + 9) / (x² − 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Start by setting up the division.  Make sure to write all the coefficients, even the zero ones.

x² + 0x − 4 | 2x⁴ + 3x³ − 4x² + 5x − 7

Start by dividing the first term of the dividend (2x⁴) by the first term of the divisor (x²).  That's 2x²; it'll be the first term in quotient.  Multiply the divisor by 2x²:

2x⁴ + 0x³ − 8x²

Subtract that from the first three terms of the dividend:

3x³ + 4x²

Drop down the next term from the dividend, and start the process all over again.

3x³ + 4x² + 5x

When you finish, the quotient will be 2x² + 3x + 4, and the remainder will be 17x + 9.

4 0
3 years ago
There was a triangle ABC with sides 15, 20, and 10. One of the sides of a triangle, which is similiar to ABC is 60. What are the
wlad13 [49]

Answer:

The possible pairs of sides are 90 and 120, 30 and 45, and 80 and 40.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that 60 is a multiple of 15, 20, and 30, so we multiply by each factor to find all possible pairs: 10x6=60, 20x6=120, and 15x6=90, that gives your first pair, <u>90 and 120</u>.

We have now multiplied our first factor, 6. Now we need to multiply our second factor, 3: 20x3=60, 15x3=45, and 10x3=30. That gives your second pair, <u>30 and 45</u>.

Finally, we need to multiply by our 3rd factor, 4: 15x4=60, 20x4=80, and 10x4=40. That gives you your final possible pair, <u>80 and 40</u>.

I hope this helps :-)

3 0
3 years ago
Which integer is closest to 0 on the number line?
marishachu [46]
1 is the closest to 0 on the number line. Hope this helps!!!!!!!!
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
FitURite garage employs one manager and four fitters. The average (mean) salary for all employees is £18600. If the manager's sa
ollegr [7]
(25,000+4x)/5=<span>18,600
</span><span>25,000+<span>4x</span></span>=<span>93,000 (multiply both sides by 5)
</span><span>4x</span>=<span>68,000 (subtract 25,000 from both sides)
</span>x=<span>17,000 (divide both sides by 4)
</span>Fitters make $17,000 a year



4 0
3 years ago
Simplify.<br><br> f-1g-1<br><br> a. f/g<br> b.g/f<br> c.1/fg<br> d.fg
fiasKO [112]
You can rewrite this equation as "f - g - 1". That's all that I see that you can do with this.
4 0
3 years ago
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