Answer:
7.76%
Explanation:
In this question, we use the PMT formula which is shown in the spreadsheet.
The NPER represents the time period.
Given that,
Present value = $969
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 8.1%
NPER = 17 years
The formula is shown below:
= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, The PMT would be $77.58
The coupon rate is shown below:
= (Coupon payment ÷ par value) × 100
= ($77.58 ÷ $1,000) × 100
= 7.76%
Answer: c. $1,650 unfavorable
Explanation:
The direct labor rate variance shows the difference between the cost of direct labor that the company thought it would incur vs what it actually incurs for the period.
Formula is:
Direct labor rate variance = Actual cost of direct labor - Standard cost of actual hours of direct labor
= Actual hours * (Actual cost - Standard cost)
= 5,500 * (24 - 23.70)
= $1,650 unfavorable
Unfavorable because the actual cost incurred was more than the cost anticipated.
Answer:
Option B is correct.
<u>A horizontal line</u>
Explanation:
Then for m > 2 , the income offer curve would be a horizontal line.
Income offer curve define as the curve which depicts the optimal choice of two goods at different levels of income at constant price. It is otherwise known as "Income Expansion Path"
Answer:
6.53%
Explanation:
For computing the after cost of debt we need to use the RATE formula i.e to be shown in attached spreadsheet. Kindly find it below:
Given that,
Present value = $1,050.76
Future value or Face value = $1,000
PMT = 1,000 × 10% = $100
NPER = 5 years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying this above formula
1. The pretax cost of debt is 8.70
2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be
= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)
= 8.70% × ( 1 - 0.25)
= 6.53%