Step-by-step explanation:
x = price per video game
y = price per CD
164 = 5x + 3y
and then we know
x = y + 12
now we can use this as substitute in the first equation :
164 = 5(y + 12) + 3y = 5y + 60 + 3y = 8y + 60
104 = 8y
y = $13
x = y + 12 = 13 + 12 = $25
so, each CD costs $13.
y=-3x+4
this is a line with slope -3 and y intercept of 4
the line is all the points that are the solutions to the equation
D.a line that shows the set of all solutions to the equation
The piecewise function all the way to the left (x + 3) should have an ending point shaded in. [At x = -2] The next function ((x^2) -1) should have both ending points left unshaded. Finally, the logarithm function should have a shaded in starting point [At x = 1] and should have an unshaded ending point at x = 3.
Answer:
We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.
Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.
Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have
number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.
The attachment is cut in half