Answer:
it is either 2 or 4
Step-by-step explanation: because if you break them apart you will get 2 or 4
"1 indicating a coupon and all other outcomes indicating no coupon"
Probability is (number of successful outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes)
Theoretical Probability of rolling a 1: 1/8
Experimental Probability of using coupons: 4/48 = 1/12
So, the experimental probability of a customer using a coupon (that is, 1/12) is smaller than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (that is, 1/8).
-0,6 i believe would be the same distance from 0,0 as 0,6.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Solution :
hello :
note :
Use the point-slope formula.
y - y_1 = m(x - x_1) when : x_1= -1 y_1= 5
m= the slope is : (YC - YA)/(XC -XA)
(-1-2)/(0-3) = -3/-3 =1
( parallel to AC means same slope)
an equation in the point-slope form is : y -5 = 1(x+1)
y=x+6
