Answer:
if the "x" is a multiplication symbol, the answer is 2.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
8.31 weeks
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the cost of one share of Apple stock, C=$120
Rate is the increment of the stock value, R= 5%/week=0.05 / week.
Assuming that after t week, the stock has been sold for $180.
Since the stock value increased at 5% every week, so, the interest is compounded weekly, so


[taking log both sides]
weeks
Hence, after 8.31 weeks the stock has been sold for $180.
Answer:
We can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%205%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.00114%2B0.009282%2B0.0358%2B0.0869%2B0.149%5D%3D%200.7178)
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And we want to find this probability:

And we can use the complement rule:
We can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%205%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.00114%2B0.009282%2B0.0358%2B0.0869%2B0.149%5D%3D%200.7178)
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
The graph has a x - axis of amount of scarves in intervals of 1 and a y - axis of hours in intervals of 20
Using this information we can see that in the ordered pair, 1 represents x and 16 represents y, which means that the scarves ar 1 and the hours are 16 in the ordered pair
C makes the most logical sense because there is nothing about centimeters in the graph and the scarves are not in the y, but rather in the x
Vote Brainliest, Thx:)
<span>Let r(x,y) = (x, y, 9 - x^2 - y^2)
So, dr/dx x dr/dy = (2x, 2y, 1)
So, integral(S) F * dS
= integral(x in [0,1], y in [0,1]) (xy, y(9 - x^2 - y^2), x(9 - x^2 - y^2)) * (2x, 2y, 1) dy dx
= integral(x in [0,1], y in [0,1]) (2x^2y + 18y^2 - 2x^2y^2 - 2y^4 + 9x - x^3 - xy^2) dy dx
= integral(x in [0,1]) (x^2 + 6 - 2x^2/3 - 2/5 + 9x - x^3 - x/3) dx
= integral(x in [0,1]) (28/5 + x^2/3 + 26x/3 - x^3) dx
= 28/5 + 40/9 - 1/4
= 1763/180 </span>