x=50
Step-by-step explanation:
angle 1 and 3 are corresponding angles that menas they equal the same
so set it up like this 2x+10=110 solve for x
move over the 10, subtract 10 from 110 you get 100 and divide by 2
you get 50.
Answer:
Teresa tiene 1 chocolate.
Ella le da 1/3 del chocolate a Miguel, entonces ahora Teresa tendrá un chocolate menos un tercio de chocolate, es decir, ella tiene:
1 - 1/3 = 3/3 - 1/3 = 2/3 de un chocolate.
Ahora le da 1/4 a diego, entonces lo que le sobra va a ser:
2/3 - 1/4
recordar que tenemos que tener el mismo denominador en ambas fracciones, entonces podemos reescribir esto como:
(4/4)*(2/3) - (3/3)*(1/4)
(a cada fracción la multiplico y divido por el denominador de la otra)
8/12 - 3/12 = (8 - 3)/12 = 5/12
Es decir, Teresa finalmente tiene 5/12 del chocolate.
Entonces la parte de chocolate que repartió es lo que le falta, que se obtiene como:
1 - 5/12 = 12/12 - 5/12 = 7/12
Ella repartió 7/12 de su chocolate.
<span>We have the yearly cost in dollars y at a video game arcade based on total game tokens purchased
. So we know that:
</span>
<span>
</span>
<span>
</span><span>
Then we can study this problem by using the graph in the figure below. We know that if there's no any purchase, the yearly cost for a
member will be $60 and for a
nonmember there will not be any cost. From this, we can affirm that the cost of membership is equal to $60.
On the other hand, both members and nonmembers will pay the same price on the total game tokens purchased, this is true because of the same slope that members and nonmembers have in the equations.</span>
The answers are - 3 and 5.
Proof by induction
Base case:
n=1: 1*2*3=6 is obviously divisible by six.
Assumption: For every n>1 n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
For n+1:
(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)=
(n(n+1)(n+2)+3(n+1)(n+2))
We have assumed that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisble by 6.
We now only need to prove that 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
If 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6, then (n+1)(n+2) must be divisible by 2.
The "cool" part about this proof.
Since n is a natural number greater than 1 we can say the following:
If n is an odd number, then n+1 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
If n is an even number" then n+2 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
Therefore by using the method of mathematical induction we proved that for every natural number n, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6. QED.
