Which of the following shows the slope and y-intercept on graph?

Computer keyboard failures are due to faulty electrical connects (12%) or mechanical defects (88%). Mechanical defects are relat

anzhelika [568]

Answer:

(c) Probability that a failure is due to loose keys = 0.2376

(d) Probability that a failure is due to improperly connected or poorly welded wires = 0.078

Step-by-step explanation:

The Whole probability scenario is given for Computer Keyboard failures.

(a) Let F be the event of failure due to faulty electrical connects, P(F) = 0.12

M be the event of failure due to mechanical defects, P(M) = 0.88

LK be the event of mechanical defect due to loose keys, P(LK/M) = 0.27

IA be the event of mechanical defect due to improper assembly, P(IA/M) =0.73

DW be the event of electrical connects due to defective wires,P(DW/F) = 0.35

IC be the event of electrical connects due to improper connections,

P(IC/F) = 0.13 .

PWW be the event of electrical connects due to poorly welded wires,

P(PWW/F) = 0.52

(b) Keyboard failures

Faulty electrical connects Mechanical Defects

P(F) = 0.12 P(M) = 0.88

Defective wires Improper Poorly Loose Keys Improper

P(DW/F)=0.35 Connections Welded wires P(LK/M)=0.27 Assembly

P(IC/F)=0.13 P(PWW/F)=0.52 P(IA/M)=0.73

This is the required tree diagram.

(c) Probability that a failure is due to loose keys is given by:

P(LK) =P(LK/M) * P(M) {This means mechanical failure is due to loose

keys}

P(LK) = 0.27 * 0.88 = 0.2376 .

(d) Probability that a failure is due to improperly connected or poorly welded

wires is given by P(IC $\bigcup$ PWW) ;

P(IC $\bigcup$ PWW) = P(IC) + P(PWW) - P(IC $\bigcap$ PWW) { Here P(IC $\bigcap$ PWW) = 0 }

P(IC) = P(IC/F) * P(F) = 0.13 * 0.12 = 0.0156

P(PWW) = P(PWW/F) * P(F) = 0.52 * 0.13 = 0.0676

Therefore, P(IC $\bigcup$ PWW) = 0.0156 + 0.0676 - 0 = 0.078 .

8 0

3 years ago

You are making a welding fixture and must cut down a length of copper tubbing from 15 1/8 inches to 8 3/4 inches. If the leftove

Bumek [7]

Answer: $6\dfrac{3}{8}\text{ inches}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Original length = $15\dfrac{1}{8}$ inches

$=\dfrac{8\times15+1}{8}=\dfrac{121}{8}$ inches ( In improper fraction )

Length of piece cut from original = $8\dfrac{3}{4}$ inches

$=\dfrac{4\times8+3}{4}$ $= \dfrac{35}{4}$ inches ( In improper fraction )

Length of piece leftover piece = (Original length ) - (Length of piece cut )

$=\dfrac{121}{8}-\dfrac{35}{4}\\\\=\dfrac{121-2\times35}{8}\\\\=\dfrac{121-70}{8}\\\\=\dfrac{51}{8}\\\\=6\dfrac{3}{8}\text{ inches}$

Hence, the leftover piece will be $6\dfrac{3}{8}\text{ inches}$ long.

6 0

3 years ago

1 is also equal to 100/100. What percent is equal to both 1 and 100/100?

Delvig [45]

Answer:

100%

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

Yuri surveyed a random sample of 75 students in his school about their favorite color. Of the students surveyed, 49 chose lavend

anastassius [24]

Answer:

600

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the number that answered lavender and divide by total # of students surveyed

49/75 = .653333 or 65.3%

then take the total # of students and multiply by .6533333

908x .6533333 = 593.22

so the closest estimate is 600

-- Gage Millar, Algebra 1/2 tutor

5 0

3 years ago

11 3.097 round to the nearest hundredTh

Anestetic [448]

Answer:

113.10

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which of the following shows the slope and y-intercept on graph?​

Which of the following shows the slope and y-intercept on graph?