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Lisa [10]
3 years ago
8

. (a + b)2 – (2a – b)

Mathematics
2 answers:
inn [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(-b) is the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

2(a-b)-(2a-b)

=2a-2b-2a+b (opening the brackets)

= -b

Hope this helps you buddy. Have a nice day^_^.

If you have doubt then you can ask in comments. I will surely answer.

harina [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

3b

Step-by-step explanation:

=2a +2b-2a+b

=3b

yesyesyrssdfc

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Please help for 50 points...
vaieri [72.5K]

Answer:

7. ○ ∆<em>ACB</em> ≅ ∆<em>DFE</em>

6. ○ \displaystyle 43°

5. ○ \displaystyle ∠M ≅ ∠S

4. ○ \displaystyle octagon

3. ○ \displaystyle squares

2. ○ \displaystyle rhombus

1. ○ \displaystyle equilateral\:triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

7. Everything is in correspondence with each other, so just follow the pattern in the order the they were originally.

6. All angles correspond with each other, so just follow the pattern.

5. All segments and angles correspond with each other, so just follow their patterns.

4. An <em>octagon</em><em> </em>has eight sides, a triangle has three sides, a <em>hexagon</em> has six sides, and a <em>pentagon</em><em> </em>has five sides. With this being stated, you have your answer.

3. In a previous lesson, we confirmed that <em>all squares </em><em>are</em><em> </em><em>rectangles</em><em> </em>because it is a quadrilateral with four right angles.

2. This is obviously a rhombus because it is a quadrilateral with four congruent angles and sides.

1. An EQUILATERAL TRIANGLE is a regular polygon because they have three congruent angles and sides.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Look at the Screenshot and ANSWER THE QUESTION
ad-work [718]

Answer:

Graph C is the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the graphs attached,

Graph A

Given graph represents a cubic function.

Graph B

This graph represents a piecewise  function.

Graph C

This graph represents an exponential function.

Graph D

Given graph represents a quadratic function.

Graph C is the answer.

6 0
3 years ago
Help - algebra 1!!!!!!!!!!!
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

7.4*10^-5, 7300000

Step-by-step explanation:

1 There are 4 zeros in 1

round up .0000742 to .000074

There are 5 places between 7 and the last zero, negative because it is a decimal.

2 7.3*10^6= 73 is first, 6 places after 7 so 5 zeros (6 is in a place)

4 0
3 years ago
−6x + 14 &lt; −28 OR 9x + 15 ≤ −12. solve for x.
sasho [114]

Answer:

x>7 or x ≤ -3

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving the 1st inequality

-6x +14 < -28 --------------- (Collect like terms)

-6x < -28 - 14

-6x < - 42 -------------------- (Divide both sides by -6)

Note: If you decide an inequality expression by a negative value, the inequality sign changes)

-6x/-6 > -42/-6

x > 7

Solving the 2nd inequality

9x + 15 ≤ −12 ----------- (Collect like terms)

9x ≤ −12 - 15

9x ≤ −27 ------------------(Divide both sides by 9)

9

9x/9 ≤ −27/9

x ≤ -3

Bring both results together, we get

x>7 or x ≤ -3

The final result is complex (i.e. can't be combined together).

4 0
4 years ago
A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
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