A
would be the right answer
not sure but hopefully
Incomplete dominance is when the phenotypes of the two parents blend together to create a new phenotype for their offspring.
Co-dominance is a relationship between two versions of a gene.
Therefore, In complete dominance, only one allele in the genotype is seen in the phenotype. In codominance, both alleles in the genotype are seen in the phenotype. In incomplete dominance, a mixture of the alleles in the genotype is seen in the phenotype.
My 2 cents below, I tried to think through the other ones:
A. Yes, because an amino acid change has occurred.
(A gene mutation occurred, not an amino acid change)
B. Yes, because all mutations change the resulting protein.
(Sounds correct. Gene -> mRNA -> protein)
C. No, because the amino acid sequence has not been changed.
(The gene mutation means the amino acid sequence <em>has</em> changed)
D. No, because mutations in the DNA do not affect the mRNA sequence.
(They do so)
Answer:
my best answer is b due to logic if not then d
Explanation:
